The present research
“The Death of History”
is an analysis of the subject
“India is nativity of Aryans and human race”
based on authentic facts. This book is an open challenge to the
entire world. Most narratives of world History book, shall
definitely be decimated by this discovery. Years ago, western
scholars propounded a false perception of “Aryans
Invasion of India”. Not a single scholar has contradicted this
falsehood till today. Inspired by this, they established another
imaginary perception “Original land of Modern Man – Africa”. Will
the world historians, linguistics, Archaeologists & biologists be
able to rescue both of these perceptions from shattering here
after? — Certainly not.
1. Why is “Ayodhya born Rama” also found in
other civilizations of the world?
2. Were the “Vedas” authored anywhere else in world
3. Was the “Yajna” described in “Vedas”
initiated by any other civilization of world?
4. Why did Europeans call India as “Indae” (Latin), “Indica”
(Greek) and “India” (Britain)?
5. In which civilization did the calculation of time
6. Is the complete language “Sanskrit” mother of all
half-baked languages of world?
7. Does pious River “Ganges” flow anywhere else in
8. Why do Europeans today find themselves incapable and
helpless in explaining of their own language, etymology and
9. Where was “Mathematics” originated?
10. To which country shall you credit worshipping “Gow”
(cow) and treating it as mother?
11. Are the British original inhabitants of “Indian Gangetic
Plains” (Uttar Pradesh)?
12. Was religiously sanctified word “OM” created by
another civilization besides Indian Aryan civilization?
13. Are the Latin (Italian, Spanish, French and Portuguese)
Communities really “Punjabi” speaking?
14. Why is “Ramayan’s” character, the “Ravan” or
“Lances” (Lankesh – King of Lanka) present in
ancient European stories?
15. Why was Lord “Shiva” worshipped and adored in all
ancient civilizations of world?
of Indian “Ramayana” is found in other civilizations of
17. Is this fake discovery by America and Europe that wolves of
Indian Himalayas and Kuchh (Gujrat) are the
ancestors of whole species of world’s wolves?
18. Is Indian cow the ancestor of world cows?
19. Were Aryans aborigines of really deserted and barren
plateau of Central Asia?
20. Could they themselves learn ancient Latin and Greek–mother
of European languages or are deceiving world and themselves? On
what basis, do they offer logic of knowing the ancient world
21. Have those who failed to trace their original civilization
and ancestors, been really successful in finding the Moon
and Mars ?
22. Can any ancient civilization be analyzed without knowledge
of “Sanskrit” language?
23. Why do Europeans call Almighty by name of “God”?
24. Why is the Indian religious symbol “Swastik” found
in all other ancient cultures of world?
25. Why first of all is worshipped God “Ganesh” also
found in other civilizations of world?
26. Is “Bheel” (Bhil) civilization of India found
anywhere else in world?
27. Why has the world not been able to understand origin and
language of Egypt’s Pyramid culture, till today?
28. Did Greek poet Homer, author of “Iliad” compose
Indian “Ramayana” or author the “Iliad” being
inspired by “Ramayana”?
29. How would you like to address those, who deny
recognizing their fathers and ancestors as such?
30. Why have even the majority of Italians not been able to
understand the origin of their “Etruscan” civilization?
31. Why do the “Oscan-Umbrian” speaking people call the
man as “Ner” (Nr), just like in Sanskrit?
There is no need of
tracing or reading Indian historical facts, “Vedas”, “Puranas”
and “Culture” to find out answers of above questions.
Indian history has been probed too much. Now the other
civilizations will answer these questions themselves instead of
India. Let’s peep not into India but into history and ancient
literature of other civilizations.
– Narender Piplani
The Origin of
Western scholars have believed that all the Aryans after
leaving Karakum desert in Turkmenistan of Central Asia had
spread into Europe and Asia’s Russia, Iran and India. The language
spoken in that desert become extinct from which Sanskrit and all
other European languages were evolved. Aryans coming to India were
barbaric and invaders. Some questions spring up from these
concepts of the western scholars which repudiate their own
(1) Even when
they had migrated from same place how Indian Aryans developed such
a perfect language Sanskrit from that extinct language, that no
other language of the world can stand equal to it.
(2) Originated from the same extinct language how European
languages remained half baked that they are unable to codify
grammar of their own unsystematic language, today?
(3) While Barbaric and invading, Indian Aryans created the
‘Vedas’ and touched those heights of religion which no
other Aryan culture or civilization can stand by, why?
(4) Migrating from the same homeland the Indian Aryans
achieved ideal heights of human life and human society. While
European Aryans ended in creating an uncivilized and a black era –
Can the western scholars find a satisfactory, reasonable and
unbiased answer to these questions? Possibly it is not. But there
is an answer. The European and Indian Aryans had not come from a
foreign land but the homeland of all Aryans is – India. India
which was known by the Aryans migrated from India to Europe by its
original name ‘Ind’. The philology, history of language and
analysis of the origin of language produced by western scholars
have no scientific base. Sanskrit was spoken by Aryans who
migrated from India to Europe, Asia and North Africa, then how did
the languages of all these countries became so different? We shall
not be able to probe the answer even in linguistics. So all the
linguistic scholars, scanning, and twisting the words and
alphabets from here to there and trying falsely to find uniformity
in European languages have not succeeded. It was as if they had
been practicing exercise of upside down like churning milk from
curd. Even the linguists have not been able to find a reason of
diversities of language.
Let us introduce the truth. At the time when Aryans were
leaving India, it was called ‘Ind’, ‘Indr’ (The worshipper
of the Sun), to give a name is always done by others or by those
who left that place. No body assigns a name to himself. At the
time of leaving India there was the language (dialect) but not
script. This absence of script caused the creation of different
languages. The form of various languages of the world came into
existence because of script origination. The Indian Aryans had
created script about five thousand years ago which has fifty five
¼_] _`½, e
¼va] v%½, k
¼y`½, w, v
¼Gº½) All sounds
of Vedic Sanskrit had separate vowels & consonants. The formation
of this script is remarkable, faultless, well accomplished and
easy in comparison to other languages. In ‘Sanskrit’
language and script the consonants and vowels (marks) are so
simple that no foreign language can match it even slightly. The
independent consonants and the ‘Matras’ (Vowels–Marks)
indicate their stable identity and complete sound. Its biggest
quality is one sound, one word consonant or matra (mark) for which
is also called the permanent sound. Contrary to this the European
and other languages have neither the independent alphabets, nor
the independent sounds or matra (mark). The one alphabet
has various sounds while different alphabets produce the one
sound. Matras (vowels) have no definite articulation. Let
us see an example of this imperfect language (English) –
English Hindi Sanskrit
A, E, O, U = A
A,E,Y = Ai
D = d
alphabets, one sound) ‘D’ silent before ‘g’ as
I, E, Y = ee
O, AU = Au
¼Å½ (No definite
C = Sometime ‘K’, Sometime ‘S’
(No definite rule)
G = Sometime ‘G’, Sometime
‘J’ (No definite rule)
G, J, Z = ‘J’ (One sound three
S = Sh
alphabet Three sounds)
A, E, I-O U = sometime silent, sometime
H = After joining, different
N = Disappearance of ‘K’ and
‘G’ before ‘N’ as Know (no) Gnet (net)
Live = sometime Live, sometime
Laive (word is one but pronunciations two)
P = disappearance of ‘P’
before ‘S’ and ‘T’ (Ptolemy-T‘lmi), Psycho (Ciko)
Tion = (Tian) sometime Shan
Th = sometime ‘th’
¼n½ as in the
If you teach the basic vowels and consonants of
‘Sanskrit’ or ‘Hindi Dev Nagari’ to an Indian or a
foreigner only once, he will read any book from beginning to the
end with correct pronunciation. No body else but even the child of
a British, if taught the words of English or any other European
language can’t correctly pronounce even ten lines ? The words of
their languages are so weak that apart from vowels and consonants,
they have to learn the pronunciation of each and every word
separately. It is strange that such an unscientific, difficult and
obnoxious language was adopted and granted the place of glory by a
major part of the world. In 3000 B.C the script was discovered in
India later in 1000 B.C. the commercial script of Alpha-beta was
created in Phoenicia, Assyria and Turkey, B after A. (It is
ignorance to recognize Hindi, Sanskrit ‘K’, ‘Kh’, ‘G’ as
alphabets) This script had neither any scientific order of sounds
and nor the independence of vowels and consonants. It was adopted
in a tottered form by west, northern Asia, North Africa and
Europe. It had less than 30 sounds (20-29). Owing to these
scripts, the diversity was created among languages. These scripts
created aloofness, inferiority and superiority among nations and
also created wars in order to prove one’s prominence.
Why is India’s ‘Sanskrit’ so well-organized in comparison to
The orderly development of India’s Devnagri
took place according to the original sounds of the
Sanskrit language. Different letters and ‘Matras’ (Marks)
were developed for each sound. Contrary to this in the European
languages all 55 sounds of Sanskrit were illogically bundled in
the few letters of Alpha-beta scripts. European languages became
distorted just because of this distortion accrued not once but
went on repeatedly. In different European countries the same
alphabet was used for different sounds. Not only this, each
country kept on changing the sounds of its alphabets repeatedly.
For example ‘C’ is starting as ‘G’, later ‘S’ and then ‘K’. Just
‘Qu’ is starting as ‘Ch’ now ‘Kv’. Europeans themselves have no
memory of the original sounds of their treasury of words.
Developed from language to the script
55 sounds (Vowels + Consonants), Independent letters (became
civilized by script).
The European languages: -
Became worse from
script to language. 55
sounds forced inclusion in 26 letters. (The script distorted
Three thousand years ago only ‘Sanskrit’ was spoken
in the whole world. According to fifty five sounds of
‘Sanskrit’ language spoken in India a script containing fifty
five letters was created in a scientific manner. In this language
there is one independent letter for each sound and from that
letter only a definite single sound is pronounced such as ‘A’
means ‘A’. Contrary to this in European, African and Asian
Continents the Script was created through an unscientific method.
In all these countries the twenty two business symbols of the
Phoenician people were granted the half baked form of scripts.
After written the spoken word in the Alpha–beta script (A – B)
anybody could pronounce the word as he wished. For example ‘O’
could be pronounced for many sounds as ‘o’, ‘au’, ‘u’, ‘oo’, ‘A’,
‘AA’ and ‘U’ gradually using the script incorrectly as one liked
it after reading the language and the dialects went on changing.
Thus real ‘Sanskrit’ was established in the whole world in
different languages with different names. Let us take you in the
history, which occurred in India, Europe and the world about
twenty five thousand – fifty thousand years ago. The people of
Europe and Asia had gone from India in different spans of time.
This declaration is not based on a guess. Due to climate and
calamities some sounds were partially changed. For example ‘F’ or
‘Ph’ and ‘B’ in place of ‘P’ and ‘H’ in place of ‘A, E, O (U)’.
Mostly changes in the sounds happened because of the long travels.
You run fast, climb on the mountains swiftly, then stop and speak
‘P’ the sound will be produce ‘F’. Similarly ‘A’ ‘E’ O (U)’
becomes ‘H’. Probably the linguists are unaware of this fact.
Most of the world’s languages – Italian, French, English,
Spanish, Latin, German, Slavic, Teutonic, Greek, Lithuanian,
Albanian, Hittite, Tocharian, Baltic, Slavic, Dutch, Danish,
Portuguese, Russian etc., European languages, Persian, Pashto,
Bluchi, Kurdish, Armenian etc., Asian languages and Hindi,
Punjabi, Bangla, Oria, Assamese, Marathi, Telugu, Kannad, Tamil
languages all have one Origin – ‘Sanskrit’. The base of this
declaration firmly stands on irrefutable authentic reasons.
Peep into other countries. Europeans wrote the obnoxious history
like ‘The Invasion of India’ by the Aryans. Let them have a
glimpse of their own history and also let us peep into that. All
the evidence found in their culture and civilization point to
their same Indian ancestors whom they had disgraced and discarded
by calling them barbaric, uncivilized and wild. Why have the
western scientists, archaeologists, anthropologists, linguistic
scholars and historians so much attachment with Egypt and Africa?
They cannot see the ancient history of the world anywhere else but
the Pyramids of Egypt. India is the oldest country of the world
and the original place of mankind. World–wide, men are part of the
Indian community. The Austric, ‘Kirat’ and the ‘Dravid’
never came to India. These races never had an existence.
Historians and linguists of any country are absolutely
incompetent to tell etymology of their national language words.
Even the Oxford and Cambridge universities are in a pitiable
position about the origin and explanation of their word’s origin.
The language of any country cannot be defined and explained
without knowledge of ‘Sanskrit’. Because of their
half-baked modern language they have lost basic identity of
initial ‘Sanskrit’ language. This is an open challenge to
the world. The ‘Sanskrit’ language is the strongest proof
of the theory that original ancestors of mankind have their place
of origin is India only – Not Africa.
Unscientific European Languages:
Those Indian descendants were really unlucky who adopted the
Alpha-beta script. Actually Alpha-beta was not a script, but the
commercial symbols of Phoenician (Punic) Culture used by traders
of Lebanon and the Mediterranean Coasts. These symbols numbered
from twenty to twenty two and they had nothing to do with the
script. The Punic symbols were extended to all the countries
around the Mediterranean Sea. This preliminary wave of the script
origin did not compel even a single scholar of Mediterranean
country to think how the people speaking fifty five sounds
(including vowels and consonants) would be able to pronounce the
whole language sounds with less than half of that i.e. twenty to
twenty two? Beyond knowledge or reasoning, scholars of script
expanded the Punic (Phoenician) symbols to twenty nine that was
also half baked. It is only because of preliminary commercial
symbols B after A of Punic people that this script was called
The effect of Script:
Till this day there is a perception that the language change
of any community occurs as a result of a communion with another
linguistic community. Before rehabilitation of modern ancestors
there was no human community in Europe. Then who impacted their
language to change? Can script also impact a language? Even till
today no linguists has written a single word on this subject, All
linguists have been of the belief that script is inanimate, but
you will be surprised to know that even the script reacts and
during this process the human groups of distant places, lack of
communication gradually change the sound of words in the script.
Even today in Southern Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar,
Orissa, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra etc. ‘Jy’
¼K½ (as in ‘gen’)
is pronounced as ‘Gy’ (as in ‘go’). While in the Sanskrit language
of North India ‘gya’ is pronounced as ‘Jya’. As a result of
territory extension syllables of the script begin to behave
independently and in society also, incorrect pronunciation of the
language (dialect) becomes permanent and ultimately begins to
appear as correct. Except script other factors like geography and
atmosphere influence the most in changing the language. The sounds
also change due to hot and cold climates.
The Silent Letter - A foolish rule:
“Sing a song – which is not audible or shout so loudly that
there is no sound.” You will be surprised to hear such
contradictory sentences. Both are foolish sentences, singing a
song and not being heard is a mad thinking. Those who speak such
things will have to be declared mad. Similar theories have been
created and remain in grammar of the European languages but the
linguists, instead of making mockery of such theories appear to
respect them. No body has till today spoken about such absurd
theories in the European languages. Letters of a language spoken
in a script are written systematically so that by pronouncing
those letters the thoughts of the writes can be read and
understood, it means letters are written to be read and if
those letters could not be read, or some letters could not be even
pronounced, what is the propriety of writing them ? When they
are not to be pronounced, what need is there of writing? But a
particular word ‘silent’ has become highly ‘respectable’ in the
grammar of English (European) language. What a strange word
‘silent’! The sound is there but silent, “the song is there but no
sound; shouting is there but without noise”, and this lopsided,
absurd and incorrect theory of the English (European) grammar is
acceptable to everyone “It is certainly a great miracle of
European Language grammar, isn’t it”?
No Western Scholar has been able to explain these
uncivilized theories till today. Such silent letters are ‘G’ and
‘K’ before ‘N’; ‘P’ before ‘S’ and ‘T’; ‘L’ before ‘M’; ‘W’ before
‘R’. Why are these letters not pronounced? The Western linguists
have neither been able to find reasons nor have given any
explanation. I would like to ask western linguists, it is your
language and you have left some letters unpronounced. These
grammatical rules of your language have been framed by yourselves,
who else will explain the reasons of these rules? Don’t you know
about your language or do you borrow a language for your use?
Why did you adopt such a strange language of others? Was the
language of the community you speak given to you on loan in garb
of business? Were you without a language before that? The whole
world demands an explanation from you today. Do you have an
answer? ……… and you have no answer, definitely not”. In cause
of time you selected a half-baked commercial script of Alpha-beta,
it was like a one eyed man. With the passage of time you have
included so many errors, omissions and commissions in that script
that today your script has become blind as ‘Dhritrashtra’ (The
blind wicked character of the greatest Indian epic ‘Mahabharata’).
No rule in respect of silent letters could be developed in
grammar of Western languages. The silent letters are not a
development but destruction for language and it is a chaotic error
with no explanation regarding these silent letters. Nor will they
find past time errors. To amend these errors the western society
has only one solution – the co-operation of their own mother
language Sanskrit. ‘Sanskrit’ has even today kept their
original language intact. Why? The mother never forgets her
children. Similarly they have no other option but to return to
Sanskrit and to know the origin of their script and language.
The Sanskrit language is competent enough to analyze all
Worlds’ languages. Sanskrit is the mother language of all worlds’
languages and as such, it can alone reform any distorted language
(like a child) of world like a mother. The defect of “silent
letter” was created in the European languages because of the
geographical conditions, changes in the climate, the
incompleteness of the script and the ignorance oriented tendency
of the simplification of words. The British, apart from
speaking the initial letters of some words of their language have
also stopped to write them. For example ‘Gnum-bher’ = Number
(numero, to count), ‘Gnut’ = nut (hard lumps, seed)
‘Agun’ = gun (Fire). Those faulty changes have gone out of
world sight. The University of Oxford is the highest institution
of English language. Now that premier institution also finds it
hapless and helpless in explaining these words and is totally
ignorant about it. It can also deny those errors in order to hide
its ignorance. The scholars of Oxford University have no knowledge
of etymology, nor are they competent to explain their mother
tongue. Now you would like to know that when the Westerners have
stopped even writing many of the silent letters, why they have
retained many such letters in their script. There is a compulsion
for that also. If they eliminate silent letters still retained,
their language will further become a laughing stock. If they
remove the unpronounced letter ‘K’ from ‘Know’ it will become
‘now’. Just look at the paradox, by reducing one letter of the
script increase of one sound in the pronunciation occurs. What a
spectacular language is English ! Similarly, if ‘W’ is removed
from ‘Write’ it becomes ‘Rite’ (Ritual). After writing Rite it
becomes more difficult to understand whether this word is for
writing or ritual. The word ‘know’ is other version of the Greek
Word ‘Gno’ and this ‘Gno’ is original pronunciation of
Sanskrit Word ‘Gyan’ Written in the Greek language.
Similarly the word ‘Write’ is original script pronunciation of
Sanskrit Word (Writi, Vriti) which means round, twisted,
sketching. ‘Writi’ is the synonym of ‘Writing’. How will
the above mentioned errors be systematized? Will the western
scholars explain it? Look at etymological explanation of word
Old English - writan “to score, outline, draw the figure of,” later “to set
down in writing” (class I strong verb; past tense wrat, Past
participle - written), from Proto-Germanic - *writanan
“tear, scratch” (L. confer - Old Frisian - writa “to
write,” Old Saxon - writan “to tear, scratch, write,”
Old Norse - rita “write, scratch, outline,” Old
High German - rizan “to write, scratch, tear,” Gerund
- reißen “to tear, pull, tug, sketch, draw, design”), outside
connections doubtful. Words for “write” in most
Indo-European - languages originally mean “carve, scratch,
cut” (L. confer - Classical Latin - scribere,
Greek - grapho, Sanskrit - rikh-); a few originally
meant “paint”. (—Online Etymology Dictionary – Douglas Harper)
And it is here that the Western Scholars make a laughing
stock of themselves. In Sanskrit there is the word
‘Likh’ for writing and not ‘Rikh’, but the Western
Scholars in order to create the co-relation of their incorrect
words are bent upon corrupting even the Sanskrit language. These
people want to prove the word ‘write’ for ‘Likh’.
Originally the word ‘write’ is ‘Writ’ or ‘Vrit’
of Sanskrit which means to bend, to make a circle, to make
something around, sketching etc. The noun ‘Vrit’ (Writ) was
made a verb in the form of ‘write’.
(All the scripts of the World are circular). Similarly the
English Word ‘Wry’ which means bended is derived from ‘Wri’
or ‘Vre’ of Sanskrit which means the same, but they are
pronouncing ‘Wry’ instead of ‘Wri’
The ancestors of Western Scholars had written word ‘Vri’, ‘Wri’
correctly. However, their descendants stopped pronouncing an
alphabet ‘w’ showing total disrespect and disregard for
script and language. If ‘w’ were to remain silent, why had
the ancestors written it. The primitive western scholars who had
created the script were learned descendants of ideal Indians.
Their present descendants are playing with the language. The
conception of Western people that Aryans had migrated from Central
Asia and world from Africa is totally childish and unscientific.
This is when their original language is ‘Sanskrit’. What
relation has Central Asia and Africa with Sanskrit, but
keeping aside the linguistic facts they are clinging to
assumptions. By developing the weapons of destruction, they are
not killing mankind only but the primitive original language and
knowledge of their ancestors also.
Disappearance of the Vowel ‘E’:
The European scripts since a long time interval have
deprived the language (dialect) of Europeans from Vowels ‘E’ and
‘I’. In ancient Latin and European languages created from it ‘C’
was used for ‘K’ and ‘G’ (as in ‘go’). If we add the vowels ‘E’ or
‘I’ after ‘C’ then the letter ‘C’ in spite of ‘Ki’ begins to
produce the sound ‘Si’. Similarly if we add ‘E’ after ‘G’, it
leaves the sound of ‘Gi’ (as in get) and changes in the sound of
‘J’ or ‘Je’ or ‘Ji’. There is the only
exception of the Word ‘Get’, The Word ‘Get’ (‘G’ as in ‘Gen’) is a
changed form of the Sanskrit Word ‘Jit-Jitna, (obtain,
gain, to get)’. The preliminary European cryptologists would have
pronounced it ‘Jit’. But it seems to hide their error and with a
spirit of vengeance the Europeans are hatching some conspiracy.
When on adding ‘E’ after ‘G’ the pronunciation of all words
becomes ‘J’ then why a rule was made to pronounce ‘Get’
(‘G’ as in ‘go’) which was originally ‘Jit’. Since years ago the
Europeans have vanished the pronunciation of ‘Ki’ and ‘gi’ (as in
‘go’) from their language, while except ‘K’ and ‘G’
(as in ‘go’) the sound of the Vowel ‘E’ remained associated with
all other consonants. ‘Ki’ and ‘Gi’ were deprived of
the sound of the Vowel ‘E’. Why was a step-motherly treatment
meted to these two letters? Latin has no letter for the
pronunciation of ‘Ki’. The Latin speaking people used ‘K’
for just one word Kal Indae and this very correct word was
established in other European languages as ‘Kal Inder’
(Calendar). At present the word ‘calendar’ is used for the
circulation of a year made on a piece of paper.
There is no definite rule present in European languages
regarding these changes of ‘Ki’ and ‘Gi’ (as in ‘go’). Because of
uncertain rules all the languages of Europe have become devoid of
principles and meaning, as for as grammar is concerned. Even then
it is surprising that decorated with the miraculous rules their
languages are co-operative in the matter of feelings getting
understood. The reality is that as to why and when the European
languages were tied by these contrary rules of grammar? The answer
to this is neither with them and nor somebody else has the
capacity. This is because not rules (grammar), but a behavior full
of madness and arbitrariness is reflected in these languages. On
basis of which rule the people of Latin pronounce the Word
‘Kaiser’ (Caesar as ‘Seizer’)? What is the meaning of the word
Caesar? They don’t know though in Germany this word is correctly
pronounced as Kaiser (The King).
European Languages—Devoid of Grammar
What odd circumstances can be created by a small piece of
cloth, if we try to cover our body by it. If we cover our head,
the feet are left out and if we try to cover our feet, hands are
bare. On covering hands, the back is exposed. The origin of
European scripts took place with disregard to principles of the
grammar. If proper rules are to be determined, now the number of
those will be numberless, to read, understand and remember they
will become impossible. The grammar rules will become bigger
than the dictionary. At present the condition of European
languages grammar is like that small piece of cloth. There will
definitely be minimum need of one rule for one word like the
Sanskrit Word ‘ahem’, ‘aam’, ‘I am’ / ‘I am’ (it is me).
The same word became ‘I am’ in European languages. The European
scholars cannot explain etymology of this word even partially. To
avoid this ignorance they had to codify this single word that only
‘am’ verb will be used with I and not ‘is’ or ‘are’. Contrary to
this, there is no such binding rule in Sanskrit because ‘Ahem’
are not two words, but only one. Before the year 1752 A.D. in
European languages of Latin and English for ‘J’ and ‘I’ there was
only one letter in the script ‘I’. In 1752 symbol ‘J’ was created
and was granted a separate sound. But without making any amendment
of the ancient times joint script error and without separating ‘J’
and ‘I’ the ‘J’ was stabilized for pronunciation as ‘I’. All
ancient words began to be pronounced with ‘I’ such as ‘igni’,
the correct pronunciation being ‘Jagni’ and after 1752 the
correct pronunciation of word ‘Jagni’ (Sparking light in
Sanskrit) began to be used in incorrect pronunciation of ‘Igni’
which is still going on. Thus the European languages are going
further to their original sound and distorted. In such a way,
European languages went on moving away from their original sounds,
The change of the sound ‘V’ in ‘oo’
One thousand seven hundred years ago the letter ‘U’ was used
for the sound ‘V’ in Latin ‘Una’ from ‘U’ = Vna, Van
(one only), “Unus” ‘Vanes’ (One), ‘Unity’ = ‘Vnity’,
‘Universe’ = ‘Vnivarsh’ = (One Universal Year), ‘Union’ =
‘Vnion’ = (A group), correct words were created based on Sanskrit
language. Later on the letter ‘U’ (V) in the script was changed
for ‘Oo’ and ‘U’ (why? Western Scholars have no answer).
Giving the sound of ‘V’ the ‘U’ now began to produce the sound of
‘Oo’ and ‘U’ and unity which was originally ‘Vniti’, now became
‘Unity’. The script changed the language. No theory or Rule of the
language has been produced till today as to on what basis one
symbol changed the sound of the language. Contrary to this in
‘Unus, Vnas’ the sound of ‘Van’ was stabilized and it changed the
symbol of script. The sound of the word ‘Van’ remained stable, but
why in the place of the script symbol ‘U’ (V) the symbol ‘O’ was
used for the pronunciation of the sound ‘V’, all the linguistic
scholars including the Oxford university are mum.
The origin of defective ‘Qu’ (Kv):
Even till today the Western and Indian linguistic scholars
have failed in explaining the sound ‘QU’ in the
Indo-European language. The words in which ‘ch’ letter or
sound is included in Sanskrit their counterparts in the – European
languages have used the sound ‘Qu’ (kw) in the place of
‘ch’. Was due to unknown reasons ‘ch’ changed into the
sound of ‘Qu’ (Kw) while they left India? According to
western scholars sound ‘ch’ changes into ‘ch’ in the
east of central Asia and towards west of it becomes ‘Qu’ (Kw). Was
this a miracle which happened with only the language (sound) of
Aryans, leaving the false original place?
(1) At the time of the origin of Latin ‘Qu’ was used for a
sound of ‘ch’. During the fourth century at entry of Christianity
Semitic language ‘Hebrew’ also blended with the European
languages. The ‘Hebrew’ language started to distort the European
languages all the more. Although Hebrew and all the European
languages were born from the Alpha-beta scripts, even then every
country established the Alpha-beta symbols for sounds according to
their convenience. The word ‘Quaf’ (Kwaf) of Hebrew
language was included at creation time of the Latin Bible. No new
symbol for the word ‘Quaf’ was found and the earlier one
used ‘Qu’ for ‘ch’ was changed in ‘Qu’ sound.
‘Qu’ was used for both sounds ‘ch’ as well as
‘Qu’ (kw) in the beginning. Later on, the sound of ‘ch’
from ‘Qu’ was forgotten as ‘G’ (as in go) from
letter ‘C’. In this way, an earlier ‘ch’ was
pronounced ‘Qu’ (kw) in the years ahead but no change
occurred in meaning even after the change in sound.
(2) The biggest surprise which reveals the truth is that in
the European country of Albania the letter ‘Q’ is pronouncing the
sound ‘ch’ even today. Apart from this, even in the Chinese
language ‘Mandarin’ the Latin letter ‘Q’ is used for
‘ch’ sound. That means the ‘Qu’ of European languages
is pronounced by the Chinese as ‘ch’ and not ‘Qu’. (“Qin”
is pronounced as ‘chin-china’).
(3) The Italian majority of ‘Etruscan’ even today, use the
‘Q’ as ‘ch’ parallel to Sanskrit ‘ch’ (which
means to add, total, and, plus).
of the present European language was initially used for the sound
‘Hai’ (H, He). After transfer of ‘ch’ to ‘Qu’
the same ‘H’ got the addition of the sound ‘ch’ and
it was converted into ‘Haich-aich’ which after the addition
of letter ‘C’ had been made only for the sound ‘ch’. Why does the
letter ‘H’ produce the sound ‘aich’ or ‘haich’ and
leaves the sound ‘ch’ at last? When added to other
consonants, it does not produce the sound ‘ch’ (for example
¼Fk½, as in ‘Theo’
¼n½ as in
‘The’). It gives its original sound ‘H’
¼g½ when used
The letter ‘Qu’ of European languages is changed form of a
sound ‘ch’ in Sanskrit language. Whether the letter ‘Qu’ (joint
letter) is used in the beginning, the end or middle of a word it
is the changed form of the Sanskrit word ‘ch’. (‘Ch’ group ‘ch’
water, ‘Achh’, pure, soft (Later on in Europe, it
became conventional use of word ‘Aqua’ for ‘Pure & Soft Water’)
rice, paddy, ‘Achhat’, paddy, rice
square, ‘Chhad’, chader, chhpper, chht (roof or cover),
(They were named square due to their same size of four sides)
question, to ask, ‘Chest’, to ask, make effort
eat greedily, glutton, ‘Chap, Chaper’, tapping soundly
shake, shiver etc. ‘Chaki’, shiver, shudder
strange ‘Chnt’ capable, peculiar
behavior, moral values, ‘Chalit’, eligible, peculiar
deviated ‘Chll’, distressed, deviate, upset
quandary, enrage, ‘Chnd’, In rage, rest-less
quantity, area, to analyze, ‘Chint’, think upon, analyze
quarter, (Kwarter), fourth Part, hut, abode, ‘Chatur’
(fourth part), ‘Chhatvr’, roof, temporary abode, hut,
quash, to finish, abolish, ‘Chash’, to kill
line ‘Ch’ = and, join, together (line) pronounced ‘Ch’,
related ancient Latin word ‘Que’
quarrel, to fight ‘Cher + up’, going against, tyrannical
quiet, peaceful, ‘Chitt’, peaceful delighted
cover to be safe from cold, ‘Chelm’, cover
five, ‘Chaanch’, five, a hand with five fingures
leave, depart, ‘Cht’, departed, separated, ‘Chuit’,
to separate, to break
extravagant, ‘Che - xot’, to see
imagination, strange, ‘Chexos’, strange
question, to ask question, ‘Choudh’, ask question
four side same, ‘Chauras’, four side same (‘S’ for same is
used first in Latin S + quare. Though in Sanskrit (Hindi) ‘S’ is
used after word ‘Chaura + s’)
(Abc - Latin, abc -
english, abc - ‘Sanskrit’)
Is it a coincidence
that all the words with ‘Qu’ are producing the same meaning as the
Sanskrit letter ‘ch’ provides? The biggest coincidence is that
‘chaturth’ (fourth part, fourth) and ‘chhatvar’ (hidden
place, roof, a place with roof) the two almost similar Sanskrit
words have a single word ‘Quarter’ in Latin that means
fourth, barrack, covered, ceiling, temporary abode. This happened
due to 24 letters of an incomplete script. This is not a
coincidence but this defect is there in all the half-baked,
tottering and faulty Alpha-beta languages which are originally the
spoilt issue of Sanskrit. An explanation on theoretical
standards is not possible for such faulty, unprincipled languages
which are devoid of any rule. In an Indian language by a pure
process Alfa is made from A. Contrary to this in European and
Semitic languages they make ‘A’ from Alpha.
‘Sapt Sindhu’ &
The relation of word “Hindu” is often believed to be
with a “Sanskrit” word “Sindhu”. According to
western and Indian historians “Sindhu” does not belong to
“Sanskrit” but to “Dravid” or to some other previous
languages. From there this word came to “Sanskrit” because
river “sindh” was called “sindhu” and on that very
basis an area around river came to be called “sindhu”.
After reaching Iran this word became “Hindu” and then
“Hind” which meant the “Sindh Pradesh”. Later on this
word “Hind” began to connote whole of
India. After an
addition of Iranian suffix of “ik” it became “Hindik”
which meant “Hind ka” ? The Greek word “Indica” or
“India” are developed terms of the same very word “Hindik”.
The similar guesses were made by short sighted linguists and
historians – away from truth.
‘Hind’ originated from a word ‘Ind’, ‘Indra’ described
repeatedly in the Vedas is its distorted form. The name
‘Indica’ given by Greek Aryans became Indae in Latin
language and later on ‘India’ in English language of
Britain. Because of use of ‘h’ in lieu of ‘e’ in
Iranian word Indica of Greek Aryans became ‘Hindka’. Later
on before an invasion by Britain ‘Hindka’, ‘Hindi’, ‘Hindustan’
etc. were widely used. The word ‘Sapt Sindhu’ (Seven Rivers)
described in the ‘Vedas’ has no relation with history. Its
use is related with veins of human body. Even then majority of
Indian historians kept on believing sapt sindhu to be the
origin place of Aryans. Aryan migrates have no memory of
“Sindh” river. They remembered only river “Ganges”
which is even today considered to be the purest and great river of
India. The concept of Sapt Sindhu being the place of origin
is wrong and based on false imagination.
word ‘Hind’ is a distorted form of Vedic Sanskrit
word ‘Ind’. But what is this ‘Indr’ or ‘Ind’?
The word ‘Indr’ has been used hundreds of times in Indian
Vedas. It has been depicted in forms of universe power of
the sun, air, clouds, light and the god. The same word ‘Indr’
was personified in India and in whole of Europe. India was named
‘Bharatvarsh’, about seven thousand years ago. The word
‘Bharat’ is also synonym of word ‘Indr’ (Bha + rat; Bha =
Bhanu, sunshine, fire, light + rat = attached, continuous = that
is a source of continuous light, means Sun or Indr). The current
etymology ‘Bharat called due to Bhrat (King) is
false & baseless. Indian culture used to be known as a name of
‘Inde’ or ‘Indr’ in ancient time. (Ind
= In + d, In = Sun, D = born of, Son of Sun, Surya
Vanshi). Modern India the ancient name of which was ‘Ind’
even today, the same Sanskrit word ‘In’, the sun, is found
in cultures of whole Africa, Europe, Asia and Australian
continents for sake of sun worshipping (originated from the Indian
Vedas) with which no scholar is acquainted today. The word
‘Sindhu’ has no relevance with that. The same very word
‘Indu’ is used by the Italians to represent them (Because of
being of Indian origin).
today inhabitants of Europe and Rome call themselves ‘Indigen’
which means the ‘son of motherland’. If they are asked
about meaning of the word ‘Indi’ or ‘Indu’, they are
unable to answer.
(means tracking out investigation) Inde, Indidem
(the place of origin), Indigena (Native,
Indigenous). In Greek and Latin languages the words ‘Indicus’,
Indae, Indu, Inder have been used for themselves and Indica,
India Inder have been used for India by Europeans, Why ? Here
is an example :-
ae (Indu+gen) = sprung from the land, native
(from birth, nationality, being of the country), indigenous
(local, national, of the land), Miles (who comes to
meet, the soldier), L. Fauni [Fauna] Fna is (FA),
one of the names of Shiva mythical king of Latin
(worshipped as the Italian pan) (A king of the Latin fable who was
worshipped in Italy as the village god, was considered to be the
defender of the shephards). Nymphaeque (The god of
water and the mountains), V. Apri (Basking in
the Sun), O-As subst, m, a native, son of the soil, Maiores
(Highness), Eorum (for this) L. Hoc
(this place), Indigenae (Indigen), Vivebant
(Vibhvant) = Power, energy, valour, age, full of aura, long
life, More aborigines, lu.
(-An Elementary Latin Dictionary by Charlton T. Lewis, Page 404)
primitive ancestors of the Europeans who had left (India) Ind Desh
to settle on unknown places used to remember India with the name
of Ind Desh, but after origin of script the Romans began to
call India ‘Indicus’, Indae, the Greek called it Indica,
the Germans Inder and people of England called it India.
Owing to the script and wrong pronunciation it became ‘Hind’ in
Iran (Paras). In spite of ‘Apbhransha’ (corrupt) word
‘Hind’ the British called ‘Sindh’ river as ‘Indus’.
(Abc - Latin, abc - english, abc - sanskrit)
The False Voyage of the Primitive Man
Refer to the
programmed ‘The journey of man’ broadcast by the National
Geographical Channel and ‘The Real Eve’ in the Biggest show
broadcast by the Discovery Channel’. In this Biggest show Mr.
Spencer Wells, writer of the Book “The Journey of Man: A
Genetic Odyssey” is analyzing DNA samples from around the
world. Similarly as a rotten fish pollutes the whole pond
the theory of evolution has polluted reasoning and brain to the
extent of madness. Finding some chimpanzees in Africa suddenly,
these lunatics got the right to grow the man by chimpanzees. Now,
because man is born from chimpanzees and those monkeys found in
Africa, the sons of primitive monkey, the helpless man also will
have to live in Africa and from there it will have to populate the
Wells has drawn a scientific conclusion that from central Africa
the primitive man reached Australia in a very short time through
south India (on the basis of DNA test of Madurai). A voyage of
twelve thousand kilometers was not possible by sea. Hence they
followed the path around the sea and reached Australia via Yemen
to Arab peninsula, India and Indonesia. Because of taking shelter
under the DNA analysis and suffering from the disease of evolution
theory Mr. Spencer could not conduct the right research. He has
not been able to find any scientific solution of how our ancestors
could reach Australia in such a short time. Though he has reduced
Somalia sea level by forty six meters (153 feet) and may be
between Indonesia and Australia by fifty meters (166 feet). Can
the level of water ‘sea’ be high or low by thirteen feet (166 -
153 = 13)? While at that time no ice age occurred.
the man is inhabitant of land, he is not an amphibian (aquatic).
When the biologists bring the ancient race ‘(San) Bushman’
from Central Africa and put it on the sea coast of Somalia, there
was the vast land of Ethiopia and Egypt. Instead of going to that
broad land why did they reach Yemen (the Arab sub continent),
crossing such a vast deep sea? Why were those scientists in such a
hurry to make them cross sea? Had these scientists taught those
primitive people, their women and children, the art of swimming?
Or otherwise these ancient people blindly jumped into sea and
crossed it in the name of these scientists? Who, the fool would
like to cross sea with small children without safe guards? Since
ancient time human beings could not swim without proper training.
It is strange enough as to how these initial facts were forgotten
by these scientists?
of human race or tribe which gets secluded because of geographical
reasons or self made customs and rituals, then more purity is
sustained in their D.N.A. in comparison to others. Their
adjustment or indulgence with other human groups does not remain
intact and so their D.N.A. remains stable for a long time.
Especially in India there were favorable geographical conditions
for an increase in the mixing of D.N.A. and they are still there,
therefore there is no secluded human group left here. But from
this it can’t be proved that the secluded tribes are the oldest
ones. This is an unprincipled and non-scientific decision, but the
biologists made whole world understand it by showing the ghost of
D.N.A. And the world! ……..understood it! ………accepted it! ………..what
a pity! If every thing had to take place in the nature according
to the theory of Darwin and these biologists, Darwin would have
become the ‘Messiah (Prophet)’ and these scientists’
angels. Does biology in Europe and America teach how a falsehood
can be turned into truth?
primitive people of (San) ‘Bushman’ tribe of Central Africa
(The untrue origin place of man) as primitive ancestors of the
oldest ancient mankind they take them to ‘Kyrgyzstan’ of Central
Asia. ‘Navajo Indians’ of Kyrgyzstan were also called by
them the ancient true humans (The direct descendants of Bushman) –
Navajyo (Sanskrit – Navajyo = Nava = New, Jyo = to
follow the religion, Indians professing new religion), and
inhabitants of ‘Tundra’ region in north the ‘Chikshu’ also
consider them to be the oldest descendants of Navajyo, (Chikshu
= in Sanskrit – ‘Chikshu’ = unstable, meaning,
wavering) and Yarang (Sanskrit – ‘Yarang’ = ‘Ya + Rang’;
moving, temporary, unstable, meeting–hall, living house, tent etc.
The same meaning is there in the ‘Chikshu’ language). The
‘Chikshus’ went to America via ‘Alaska’ and caused the
rehabilitation of America. Because of these Bushman, ‘Navajo’
and ‘Chikshu’ the whole world is a single dynasty. All
inhabitants of the world constitute the same dynasty. But the way
in which the western biologists are producing the false argument
about the place and the original ancestors, cannot be taken as
programmed ‘Tamed India’ of Discovery Channel under the caption
“Desert Wolves of India” a discovery the western scientists have
made it amply clear that place or origin of all wolves of world is
the Indian Himalayas and the barren land of ‘Rajasthan’ and
‘Gujarat’ region. Only from these places they spread in
throughout the world. Similarly the origin place of cow is also
northern India and from there it reached the whole world.
question arises whether the wolves and cows spread in the world by
themselves or they traveled with human beings. Both these animals
live in company of man and grow in his neighborhood. So this fact
is not acceptable that animals living with man would spread to the
world without him. The western scholars have proved on the basis
of science that the origin place of wolves and cows is only India,
why, and then are they holding Africa as the origin place of human
race? Do these two contradictory theories not put a question mark
on their intelligence? Their analysis regarding Africa proves it
that they have not a single proof regarding the origin of man.
They are only beating about the bush in the matter of fixing
Africa. They have no proof regarding their theory about the origin
of man being Africa.
The Origin Place of Man - Why
Why all the
scientists are ganging up to prove that only Africa is origin
place of mankind? As an answer they have only one solution the DNA
analysis. From DNA analysis the relation can be decided between
different groups of man. It can tell the relation of man to man
but what are these people trying to prove from the DNA analysis?
They are trying to tell that DNA can tell about the birth place of
a man. The chromosomes ‘Gun-Sutras’ (Virtue-Factor) of man
has nothing to do with place. The DNA analyses only the physical
structure of a man and not the place situated on the surface of
the earth. It is astonishing that in the whole world not a single
scholar is prepared to ask the DNA analyst as to what relation DNA
has with the place. Why are you clinging to Africa like fools?
What is proof and basis of modern man’s place of origin being
Africa? Today, the western scientists and biologists, claiming
that the origin place of man is Africa; they are getting encircled
in a web created by themselves. The day will come when they
will have to declare that the origin place of man is India.
Biology has its limit in concern with human genetic relation. But
the biologists are binding fictitious human relation with place
beyond the limit of science. Only by recognizing ancient human
skeletons in Africa it can’t be proved that ancient skeletons are
not found anywhere else on the earth. Have these biologists
ransacked whole of the earth?
ignorant effort reminds of a story. The school teacher asked a
student, “A train is running at a speed of 100 km/h. Then tell the
age of my brother” An innocent student replied, “forty years”. The
teacher said, “Absolutely correct, But tell me with which method
did you find this answer?” Fearlessly the student said, “My elder
brother is twenty years old and is half mad”. Are the biologists
also not searching answers against the similar questions” What is
the relation between the speed of a train and a man’s age? What
has DNA (The chromosomes of human) analysis to do with South
Africa as a place? South Africa is a part of land not mankind. Do
they have a reasonable reply to this?
The origin place of man is definitely India and from here
the Aborigines had reached Australia in the east and Bushman
(Imaginary name) Central Africa in the West in very short
intervals. This is the truth of biologist’s problem (Reaching
Australia from Africa in a short time). The most astonishing
aspect is - the language of primitive people at the time of
leaving Africa. On this topic the scientists and scholars are
mysteriously silent, they never talk about the language, till
today not a single scientist, historian, and linguist has found
which language man had while leaving Africa. Were these primitive
people speaking or dumb? Apart from Sanskrit all the people of
world are undeveloped in respect of language. They have no
etymological knowledge of their own language. What would they tell
about the language of primitive man?
language of those human groups was Sanskrit and they had spread in
the world from India, not from Africa. This is not an assumption
but an authentic challenge for the world.
Africa and trace your roots in India which are only in India (Ind).
India is the ultimate sacred destination of human origin. For
this we are grateful to the West that they introduced us to the
word ‘Indu’, ‘Ind’ safely stored in their memory.
The Vedas (Rig
The authenticity of the
Vedas is present in the western countries since thousands
of years. The unfortunate fact is that they have forgotten the
Vedas. The Vedas contain the face of nature, human
conduct and behavior, the system of social life and mainly the
management of the government. They especially contain directions
to ruling class based on the activities of five supreme elements.
Now, the Europeans don’t know, even the meaning of the word
‘Reg’ or ‘Rig’, nor do they know why they are using
this word? The word ‘Rig’ is being used for the same meaning in
India as well as in Europe that is ‘Administration’. As western
scholars have always been declaring Central Asia as original place
of Aryans, then original place of word ‘Rig’ and
‘Rig-Veda’ will have to be accepted as some barren place in
the Central Asia. Is Rig-Veda not the legacy of India? Why
did all those Aryan Scholars, who had authority on Vedas, come
from Central Asia and settled in India? Were the Vedas created in
Central Asia? Had the Indian Aryans brought the complete knowledge
of the Vedas? Did the European Aryans go to Europe with a single
word ‘Rig’, of which they do not even know an etymological
Does this fact not point to India as the original place of
the Aryans? Was Rig-Veda written in the desert of Central
Asia? Then why were the groups of Aryans who went to Europe
deprived of the Rig-Veda knowledge? And if the knowledge of
Rig-Veda had gone from India, on what basis Central Asia was being
declared as the original place of Aryans? The most surprising fact
is that not even a single contemporary or modern historian has
been able to produce any solid evidence to prove the concept of
Central Asia being “original place of Aryans”. They have been
only insulting themselves and their ancestors by spreading such
canards regarding the original place of their ancestors.
Look at some ancient proofs regarding Rig-Veda and
Atharva Veda of India in western countries:-
conduct guide, Rig, Veda
royal palace, court
means of guidance, director
rigor, a direction
to have royal power
return to right
Rego (Rigya) (REG), to keep straight, righteous, rightful, rightly, rigid,
rigidity, rigor (full control), rigorous (fixed,
purified, determined), rigsdag (royal court of Danish),
guide, direct, control
The following words of the English
language are related to analysis described in Rig-Veda.
recover, reach again
royal rights, royal
to decorate, capable,
occasions, cheerfulness, rest, to please
to respect, to show,
within limits, not
royal army (state)
trace of a country, a
separate specific part
related to reign
to raise again
change, going back
repent, to grieve at
according to rule,
to manage, to
cast up again
rite, religious work, abandoned to religion
fair, Right, eligible
For religion the Westerners coined a very beautiful
word ‘religion’, Re + Lai + Gen; Re = Lai - Lay =
establish + extreme devotion + the immersion of the mind + Jan
- Gen; to establish the man in devotion or the concentration of
mind = Religion.
Attribuo, attribute (religion, title, adjective, quality),
attribution (the conferring of authority), attributive
(the symbol of virtues, the specialized) = Atherv, Veda.
On basis of Roman dictionary while Roman (Aryans) were
leaving India only two Vedas, the first Rig and the other Atharva
had been composed. On the basis of the above mentioned words, the
validity of only two Vedas is established.
(Abc - Latin, abc - English, abc - ‘Sanskrit’)
Cow (Gow - God)
Ever since primitive time the cow is worshipped as ‘mother cow’ in
India and similarly in Europe the cow used to be worshipped as the
Supreme God. The solid proofs of facts are present not only in the
literature and history of Europe but also in the Bible in plenty.
In which condition at present has the revered cow been reduced by
the human being. After the adoption of Christianity cow was
forgotten and its idols were destroyed. In India Idols of several
Gods and Goddesses were established on the basis of the Sanatan
Dharma, while the Europeans on the basis of Arya (Vedic
religion) kept on worshipping the cow only visually and considered
it to be the only God. In Europe, word God is used for Almighty
and this word has originated from a Sanskrit Word ‘Gowdev’.
First Time in the world
A Presentation of
The revelation of Truth
For an authentic Research
Devastate most of the World’s
Historical and Scientific Presumptions
The Death of History
(India – The origin place of Human)
Was “Jesus” REAL?
puzzles of New Testaments
1. Why was Jesus to be born of Virgin Mary?
2. Why does every Joseph in the Bible indulge in dreams?
3. Why was John born six months earlier to Jesus?
4. Why does John not drink grape wine and liquor?
5. Why has Zachariah, the father of John remained dumb till his
6. Why does John stand witness, “It is he who is coming after
7. John does not deserve to unlace Jesus’ shoes, why?
8. Why do so many kings with the same name “Herod” occur during
9. Who were the three astrologers appearing at the birth of
10. Why does John wear clothes made of camel hair and girdle?
11. Did John use to eat locusts and forest honey?
12. Why has Jesus to say repeatedly “Verily, verily, I say to
13. Why was Jesus born at “Nazareth” and was called “Nazarene”?
14. Do you know meaning of the place called “Golgotha”?
15. Why did Jesus always remain around bank of a lake or a river?
16. Why do the disciples of Jesus leave net instantly and follow
17. Why is Jesus indifferent about meeting his mother and
18. How is Jesus able to feed five thousand people with just five
pieces of bread?
19. How does Jesus satisfy four thousand men with just seven
pieces of bread?
20. Why does Jesus give only divine symbol of “Jonas”?
21. Why does Jesus predict his death again and again?
22. Why does Jesus show his changed form after taking John and
Peter along with him?
23. Why did Jesus come to nurse others and not to be nursed
24. Why are all women around Jesus of same name “Mary”?
25. Why are so many people named “Simon” associated with Jesus?
26. Do you know the meaning of “Galilee”?
27. Why does no one else, but “Judas” get Jesus caught?
28. Who is the thirty eight year old bed ridden patient?
29. When everybody knew Jesus, why does Judas get him identified?
30. Why does “Simon Peter”, refuse to recognize Jesus?
31. Why does Judas commit suicide so soon?
32. Who was Mary Magdalene?
33. What were the reasons behind putting a crown of thorns on
34. Red and Purple colored clothes are first put on Jesus and
then taken off, why?
35. Why was there darkness all around when Jesus breathes his
36. Why does the shrine’s curtain get torn in the middle at death
37. Why did Jesus have to come again alive three days after his
38. Why does “Joseph” (not his father) come to carry away the
dead body of Jesus?
39. How old was Jesus when he was crucified?
40. Jesus calls himself sometimes “Son of God” and sometimes “Son
of Man”, why?
41. Was Jesus’ birth really predicted by sooth sayers?
42. Was Jesus actually crucified on the same cross as is shown in
the picture (†)?
43. Why is the place of Jesus’ burial different in various
44. Do you know the meaning of “Nag Hammadi”?
45. Why was Jesus visible only to “Mary Magdalene” after his
46. Why did the eleven disciples have to go to Galilee in order
to have a view of Jesus after his revival?
47. Why did Jesus ride on ass’s colt every time he used to go to
48. Why will Baptism be given with water by John and with fire by
49. Why does Jesus say, “The bridegroom will be separated from
them, they will fast during those days”?
50. Why does Jesus want his disciples to drink his blood from a
51. Why does Jesus feel frightened and shed big drops of
perspiration while praying?
52. Why was scent poured on Jesus’ head by Mary?
53. What is to be meant by the statement, “I am the bread of
54. “And the bread I shall give to world is my flesh”, is the
food being eaten by world, the flesh of Jesus?
55. “The one, who eats my flesh and drinks my blood, remains
stable in me and me in him”, what statement is it?
56. “The one who eats me, will remain alive owing to me,
57. Why does Jesus wash the feet of his disciples?
58. Why did Jesus show the holes made in his hands by the nails
only when Thomas arrived?
59. What is the correct meaning of “Gabbatha”?
60. What is truly birthday of Jesus, 6th January or 25th
61. Is Jesus really a historical character?
62. What is the secret of one hundred and fifty three fishes?
63. Was Jesus really born in Bethlehem?
64. Can a woman conceive without a man?
65. Was Jesus taken to Egypt?
66. In Bible Bethlehem, Bethesda, Bethsaida (5:2 Johanna) is
repeated again and again. What is the “Beth” or “Bath” after all?
67. Why that field of the potter is called the “field of blood”
even till today?
68. Why are so many characters named Mary, Joseph, Simon (John),
Jacob repeated in Bible?
69. Why are only twelve buckets of food left after feeding all
the people? What is the meaning of “Twelve buckets full of bread”?
70. Did Jesus use to kiss the whole body of Mary Magdalene as
stated in “Gospel of Philip” found in Nag Hammadi of Egypt?
71. Do you know the meaning of the story of Jesus’ revival?
72. Who was “Paul” the propagator of Christianity?
73. What is the mystery behind Jesus reviving the dead body of
74. Are the old and new testaments of Bible, only imaginary
75. Are Jewish, Christianity and Islam religions the
re-composition of the Indian Vedas?
76. Was Jesus the incarnation of King Solomon?
77. Do you know the meaning of “Messiah” (Christ)?
78. Every king “Harrods” was the ruler of the one fourth states.
What is this one fourth state?
79. Why does the sinful woman Mary pour scent on the feet of
80. Was Jesus born millions of years ago as is said that he
existed before Abraham?
81. Is Jesus alive even today?
82. Why did Herod put shining clothes on Jesus’ body?
83. After crucifying Jesus why did the soldiers distribute his
clothes among themselves?
84. Why was Jesus given vinegar after putting him on the cross?
Please wait to know the mystery of the questions of Bible
complicated for the last two thousand
puzzles of Old Testaments
1. Do you know the meaning of “Jehovah” (God) of Jewish
2. Was Adam really the first man on Earth?
3. Has the Garden of Eden described in Bible been discovered?
4. Was Eve the really first woman on Earth?
5. Why was a serpent kept with Adam and Eve in Eden Garden?
6. Who was the serpent of Eden Garden? Is that alive even
7. Do you know “Cain” and “Abel”?
8. Cain killed his real brother in presence of God (Jehovah)
and god blessed Cain. Was it a religious deed?
9. Why did Cain become an absconder on earth?
10. Would you like to know the country of Cain named “Nod” has
11. Do you want to know the descendants of Cain (Enoch, Erad,
Mahaleleel, Methuselah, Lamech, Wife of Lamech - Adah and Zillah,
Jabal, Jubal, Tubal-Cain, Naamah)?
12. Would you like to read the history of Adam’s third son “Seth”
and his son “Enos”?
13. Does the form of a human being resemble Jehovah (God)?
14. Does any scholar know the meaning of “Canaan” to-day?
15. What do you know about descendants of Adam and Seth (Enoch,
Noah, Mahalaleel, Lamech, Methuselah, Jared)?
16. Who was Noah, the central character of Deluge legend?
17. Which is the true birth date of Shem, Ham, Japheth the sons
of Noah? (8:15 then the God said to Noah, 16 come out of water
with your sons, wife and daughter-in-law, 10:1 - Shem, Ham,
Japheth were the sons of Noah) They were born after the deluge.
Which story should be trusted?
18. The event of Deluge (horrible flood) has never happened. Then
why is this story found in all civilizations of world?
19. Did really Noah and his sons Shem, Hams, Japheth exist ever
20. Do you want to know the history of Nimrod, descendant of
Ham’s son Cush? (Origin 10:8 Nimrod, one of Cush descendants, was
the first warrior on Earth)?
21. Why does Noah curse “Canaan” to become a slave without any
22. Speaking different languages by human-beings, the story
“Tower of Babylon”, is to amuse the children?
23. Is family tree of Sham produced in Bible, true?
24. Are Abram and Sara historical characters?
25. Why was the practice of circumcision started? What is the
real meaning of circumcision?
26. Why did Abram go to Egypt?
27. Was Pharaoh of Egypt imperiled due to Abram’s wife?
28. Why does Abram take Lot along with him everywhere?
29. Why does Lot select the irrigated land along river Jordan?
30. Why is Lot caught and imprisoned?
31. What is meaning of three hundred eighteen slaves of Abram?
32. Why does Jehovah (God) spend most of his time in anger and
33. Would any father (Lot) like to procreate progeny by sleeping
with his daughters? Is this a religious ritual of Jews?
34. Can a hundred year old couple (Isaac) produce progeny?
35. Who was red colored “Esau” with hair?
36. Why was “Joseph” always interpreting the dreams?
37. Was Moses an historical figure?
38. Why was the grave of Moses not found in Israel?
39. Why did Aaron always remain with Moses?
40. Who were Amalek?
41. Why was Moses’ wife name Sippora?
42. Why has Jehovah (God) taken a vow to fight against Amalek for
43. What is the mystery behind Israelis crossing the Red Sea and
army of Pharaoh getting drowned?
44. Who was “Samuel”?
45. Do you know “Elly”?
46. After making “Saul” as king, why does Jehovah snatch his
47. Who was David?
48. Why did Solomon prove himself to be the last king of Israel?
49. Do you know Sheba?
50. From where had Sheba come and where did she go?
51. What is meant by “The kings of Israel”? Had Soul, David and
Solomon ever been the kings of Israel?
52. Had the queen of Sheba come from the country called Syria or
from Southern Arab or Northern Africa? Now the scholars consider
Ethiopia or Yemen to be her original place? Is it true?
53. Why are the characters described in “Torah” called “Nabi”?
54. Had a temple in reality been built by Solomon?
55. Why was Solomon born to only Bathsheba?
56. Could David alone not construct the temple of Jehovah?
57. No other king except Solomon could construct the temple of
58. Who was Hiram Abi? Why is he mentioned as a widow’s son?
59. Why did no sounds occur at construction time of the first
60. Saul rules over Israel only for two years, why?
Wait to know the jumbled questions of
Bible since two thousand years!