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Introduction

The present research
“The Death of History” is an analysis of the subjectIndia is nativity of Aryans and human race” based on authentic facts. This book is an open challenge to the entire world. Most narratives of world History book, shall definitely be decimated by this discovery. Years ago, western scholars propounded a false perception of “Aryans Invasion of India”. Not a single scholar has contradicted this falsehood till today. Inspired by this, they established another imaginary perception “Original land of Modern Man – Africa”. Will the world historians, linguistics, Archaeologists & biologists be able to rescue both of these perceptions from shattering here after? — Certainly not.

1.      Why is “Ayodhya born Rama” also found in other civilizations of the world?

2.      Were the “Vedas” authored anywhere else in world besides India?

3.      Was the “Yajna” described in “Vedas” initiated by any other civilization of world?

4.      Why did Europeans call India as “Indae” (Latin), “Indica” (Greek) and “India” (Britain)?

5.      In which civilization did the calculation of time (Calendar) originate?

6.      Is the complete language “Sanskrit” mother of all half-baked languages of world?

7.      Does pious River “Ganges” flow anywhere else in world?

8.      Why do Europeans today find themselves incapable and helpless in explaining of their own language, etymology and vocabulary?

9.      Where was “Mathematics” originated?

10.     To which country shall you credit worshipping “Gow” (cow) and treating it as mother?

11.     Are the British original inhabitants of “Indian Gangetic Plains” (Uttar Pradesh)?

12.     Was religiously sanctified word “OM” created by another civilization besides Indian Aryan civilization?

13.     Are the Latin (Italian, Spanish, French and Portuguese) Communities really “Punjabi” speaking?

14.     Why is “Ramayan’s” character, the “Ravan” or “Lances” (Lankesh – King of Lanka) present in ancient European stories?

15.     Why was Lord “Shiva” worshipped and adored in all ancient civilizations of world?

16.    “Sita” of Indian “Ramayana” is found in other civilizations of world, why?

17.     Is this fake discovery by America and Europe that wolves of Indian Himalayas and Kuchh (Gujrat) are the ancestors of whole species of world’s wolves?

18.     Is Indian cow the ancestor of world cows?

19.     Were Aryans aborigines of really deserted and barren plateau of Central Asia?

20.     Could they themselves learn ancient Latin and Greek–mother of European languages or are deceiving world and themselves? On what basis, do they offer logic of knowing the ancient world languages?

21.     Have those who failed to trace their original civilization and ancestors,  been  really  successful  in  finding  the  Moon  and Mars ?

22.     Can any ancient civilization be analyzed without knowledge of “Sanskrit” language?

23.     Why do Europeans call Almighty by name of “God”?

24.     Why is the Indian religious symbol “Swastik” found in all other ancient cultures of world?

25.     Why first of all is worshipped God “Ganesh” also found in other civilizations of world?

26.     Is “Bheel” (Bhil) civilization of India found anywhere else in world?

27.     Why has the world not been able to understand origin and language of Egypt’s Pyramid culture, till today?

28.     Did Greek poet Homer, author of “Iliad” compose Indian “Ramayana” or author the “Iliad” being inspired by “Ramayana”?

29.     How would you like to address those, who deny recognizing their fathers and ancestors as such?

30.     Why have even the majority of Italians not been able to understand the origin of their “Etruscan” civilization?

31.     Why do the “Oscan-Umbrian” speaking people call the man as “Ner” (Nr), just like in Sanskrit?

There is no need of tracing or reading Indian historical facts, “Vedas”,Puranas” and “Culture” to find out answers of above questions. Indian history has been probed too much. Now the other civilizations will answer these questions themselves instead of India. Let’s peep not into India but into history and ancient literature of other civilizations.

– Narender Piplani

  

The Origin of Language (Script)

Western scholars have believed that all the Aryans after leaving Karakum desert in Turkmenistan of Central Asia had spread into Europe and Asia’s Russia, Iran and India. The language spoken in that desert become extinct from which Sanskrit and all other European languages were evolved. Aryans coming to India were barbaric and invaders. Some questions spring up from these concepts of the western scholars which repudiate their own thinking:-

(1)        Even when they had migrated from same place how Indian Aryans developed such a perfect language Sanskrit from that extinct language, that no other language of the world can stand equal to it.

(2)        Originated from the same extinct language how European languages remained half baked that they are unable to codify grammar of their own unsystematic language, today?

(3)        While Barbaric and invading, Indian Aryans created the ‘Vedas’ and touched those heights of religion which no other Aryan culture or civilization can stand by, why?

(4)        Migrating from the same homeland the Indian Aryans achieved ideal heights of human life and human society. While European Aryans ended in creating an uncivilized and a black era – why?

Can the western scholars find a satisfactory, reasonable and unbiased answer to these questions? Possibly it is not. But there is an answer. The European and Indian Aryans had not come from a foreign land but the homeland of all Aryans is – India. India which was known by the Aryans migrated from India to Europe by its original name ‘Ind’. The philology, history of language and analysis of the origin of language produced by western scholars have no scientific base. Sanskrit was spoken by Aryans who migrated from India to Europe, Asia and North Africa, then how did the languages of all these countries became so different? We shall not be able to probe the answer even in linguistics. So all the linguistic scholars, scanning, and twisting the words and alphabets from here to there and trying falsely to find uniformity in European languages have not succeeded. It was as if they had been practicing exercise of upside down like churning milk from curd. Even the linguists have not been able to find a reason of diversities of language.

Let us introduce the truth. At the time when Aryans were leaving India, it was called ‘Ind’, ‘Indr’ (The worshipper of the Sun), to give a name is always done by others or by those who left that place. No body assigns a name to himself. At the time of leaving India there was the language (dialect) but not script. This absence of script caused the creation of different languages. The form of various languages of the world came into existence because of script origination. The Indian Aryans had created script about five thousand years ago which has fifty five sounds. (a ¼v½, aa ¼vk½, I ¼b½, ee ¼bZ½, u ¼m½, oo ¼Å½, ri ¼_] _`½, e ¼,½, ai ¼,s½, o ¼vks½, au ¼vkS½, an ¼va] v%½, k ¼d½, kh ¼[k½, g ¼x½, gh ¼?k½, rd ¼³½, ch ¼p½, chh ¼N½, j ¼t½, jh ¼>½, n ¼¥½, t ¼V½, th ¼B½, d ¼M½, rh ¼<½, n ¼.k½, t ¼r½, th ¼Fk½, d ¼n½, dh ¼/k½, n ¼u½, p ¼i½, ph ¼Q½, b ¼c½, bh ¼Hk½, m ¼e½, y ¼;½, r ¼j½, l ¼y½, v ¼y`½, lr ¼y`½, w, v ¼o½, sh ¼“k½, sr ¼J½, sh ¼‘k½, s ¼l½, h ¼g½, x ¼{k½, tr ¼=½, gy ¼K½, ¼G½ ¼Gº½) All sounds of Vedic Sanskrit had separate vowels & consonants. The formation of this script is remarkable, faultless, well accomplished and easy in comparison to other languages. In ‘Sanskrit’ language and script the consonants and vowels (marks) are so simple that no foreign language can match it even slightly. The independent consonants and the ‘Matras’ (Vowels–Marks) indicate their stable identity and complete sound. Its biggest quality is one sound, one word consonant or matra (mark) for which is also called the permanent sound. Contrary to this the European and other languages have neither the independent alphabets, nor the independent sounds or matra (mark). The one alphabet has various sounds while different alphabets produce the one sound. Matras (vowels) have no definite articulation. Let us see an example of this imperfect language (English) –

English                        Hindi Sanskrit

A, E, O, U        =          A ¼v½ (indefinite)

A,E,Y               =          Ai ¼,½ (indefinite)

D                    =          d ¼M½, d ¼n½, dh ¼<+½, dd ¼M+½, dh ¼/k½    (Five alphabets, one sound) ‘D’ silent before ‘g’ as
                                               ‘Bridge’

I, E, Y              =          ee ¼b½ (Uncertain)

O, AU              =          Au ¼vks½, A ¼v½, V ¼o½, Oo ¼Å½ (No definite rule)

C                      =          Sometime ‘K’, Sometime ‘S’ (No definite rule)

G                      =          Sometime ‘G’, Sometime ‘J’      (No definite rule)

G, J, Z              =          ‘J’ (One sound three alphabets)

S                      =          Sh ¼’k½, Sh ¼”k½, S ¼l½ (One alphabet Three sounds)

A, E, I-O U       =          sometime silent, sometime pronounced

H                     =          After joining, different sounds

N                     =          Disappearance of ‘K’ and ‘G’ before ‘N’ as Know (no) Gnet (net)

Live                  =          sometime Live, sometime Laive (word is one but pronunciations two)

P                      =          disappearance of ‘P’ before ‘S’ and ‘T’ (Ptolemy-T‘lmi), Psycho (Ciko)

Tion                  =          (Tian) sometime Shan sometime Chan

Th                    =          sometime ‘th’ ¼Fk½ Theo, sometime‘d’ ¼n½ as in the

If you teach the basic vowels and consonants of ‘Sanskrit’ or ‘Hindi Dev Nagari’ to an Indian or a foreigner only once, he will read any book from beginning to the end with correct pronunciation. No body else but even the child of a British, if taught the words of English or any other European language can’t correctly pronounce even ten lines ? The words of their languages are so weak that apart from vowels and consonants, they have to learn the pronunciation of each and every word separately. It is strange that such an unscientific, difficult and obnoxious language was adopted and granted the place of glory by a major part of the world. In 3000 B.C the script was discovered in India later in 1000 B.C. the commercial script of Alpha-beta was created in Phoenicia, Assyria and Turkey, B after A. (It is ignorance to recognize Hindi, Sanskrit ‘K’, ‘Kh’, ‘G’ as alphabets) This script had neither any scientific order of sounds and nor the independence of vowels and consonants. It was adopted in a tottered form by west, northern Asia, North Africa and Europe. It had less than 30 sounds (20-29). Owing to these scripts, the diversity was created among languages. These scripts created aloofness, inferiority and superiority among nations and also created wars in order to prove one’s prominence.

Why is India’s ‘Sanskrit’ so well-organized in comparison to European languages? The orderly development of India’s Devnagri script took place according to the original sounds of the Sanskrit language. Different letters and ‘Matras’ (Marks) were developed for each sound. Contrary to this in the European languages all 55 sounds of Sanskrit were illogically bundled in the few letters of Alpha-beta scripts. European languages became distorted just because of this distortion accrued not once but went on repeatedly. In different European countries the same alphabet was used for different sounds. Not only this, each country kept on changing the sounds of its alphabets repeatedly. For example ‘C’ is starting as ‘G’, later ‘S’ and then ‘K’. Just ‘Qu’ is starting as ‘Ch’ now ‘Kv’. Europeans themselves have no memory of the original sounds of their treasury of words.

Sanskrit: - Developed from language to the script 55 sounds (Vowels + Consonants), Independent letters (became civilized by script).

The European languages: - Became worse from script to language. 55 sounds forced inclusion in 26 letters. (The script distorted it).

Three thousand years ago only ‘Sanskrit’ was spoken in the whole world. According to fifty five sounds of ‘Sanskrit’ language spoken in India a script containing fifty five letters was created in a scientific manner. In this language there is one independent letter for each sound and from that letter only a definite single sound is pronounced such as ‘A’ means ‘A’. Contrary to this in European, African and Asian Continents the Script was created through an unscientific method. In all these countries the twenty two business symbols of the Phoenician people were granted the half baked form of scripts. After written the spoken word in the Alpha–beta script (A – B) anybody could pronounce the word as he wished. For example ‘O’ could be pronounced for many sounds as ‘o’, ‘au’, ‘u’, ‘oo’, ‘A’, ‘AA’ and ‘U’ gradually using the script incorrectly as one liked it after reading the language and the dialects went on changing. Thus real ‘Sanskrit’ was established in the whole world in different languages with different names. Let us take you in the history, which occurred in India, Europe and the world about twenty five thousand – fifty thousand years ago. The people of Europe and Asia had gone from India in different spans of time. This declaration is not based on a guess. Due to climate and calamities some sounds were partially changed. For example ‘F’ or ‘Ph’ and ‘B’ in place of ‘P’ and ‘H’ in place of ‘A, E, O (U)’.  Mostly changes in the sounds happened because of the long travels. You run fast, climb on the mountains swiftly, then stop and speak ‘P’ the sound will be produce ‘F’. Similarly ‘A’ ‘E’ O (U)’ becomes ‘H’. Probably the linguists are unaware of this fact.

Most of the world’s languages – Italian, French, English, Spanish, Latin, German, Slavic, Teutonic, Greek, Lithuanian, Albanian, Hittite, Tocharian, Baltic, Slavic, Dutch, Danish, Portuguese, Russian etc., European languages, Persian, Pashto, Bluchi, Kurdish, Armenian etc., Asian languages and Hindi, Punjabi, Bangla, Oria, Assamese, Marathi, Telugu, Kannad, Tamil languages all have one Origin – ‘Sanskrit’. The base of this declaration firmly stands on irrefutable authentic reasons. Peep into other countries. Europeans wrote the obnoxious history like ‘The Invasion of India’ by the Aryans. Let them have a glimpse of their own history and also let us peep into that. All the evidence found in their culture and civilization point to their same Indian ancestors whom they had disgraced and discarded by calling them barbaric, uncivilized and wild. Why have the western scientists, archaeologists, anthropologists, linguistic scholars and historians so much attachment with Egypt and Africa? They cannot see the ancient history of the world anywhere else but the Pyramids of Egypt. India is the oldest country of the world and the original place of mankind. World–wide, men are part of the Indian community. The Austric, ‘Kirat’ and the ‘Dravid’ never came to India. These races never had an existence.

Historians and linguists of any country are absolutely incompetent to tell etymology of their national language words. Even the Oxford and Cambridge universities are in a pitiable position about the origin and explanation of their word’s origin. The language of any country cannot be defined and explained without knowledge of ‘Sanskrit’. Because of their half-baked modern language they have lost basic identity of initial ‘Sanskrit’ language. This is an open challenge to the world. The ‘Sanskrit’ language is the strongest proof of the theory that original ancestors of mankind have their place of origin is India only – Not Africa.

Unscientific European Languages:

Those Indian descendants were really unlucky who adopted the Alpha-beta script. Actually Alpha-beta was not a script, but the commercial symbols of Phoenician (Punic) Culture used by traders of Lebanon and the Mediterranean Coasts. These symbols numbered from twenty to twenty two and they had nothing to do with the script. The Punic symbols were extended to all the countries around the Mediterranean Sea. This preliminary wave of the script origin did not compel even a single scholar of Mediterranean country to think how the people speaking fifty five sounds (including vowels and consonants) would be able to pronounce the whole language sounds with less than half of that i.e. twenty to twenty two? Beyond knowledge or reasoning, scholars of script expanded the Punic (Phoenician) symbols to twenty nine that was also half baked. It is only because of preliminary commercial symbols B after A of Punic people that this script was called Alpha-beta.

The effect of Script:

Till this day there is a perception that the language change of any community occurs as a result of a communion with another linguistic community. Before rehabilitation of modern ancestors there was no human community in Europe. Then who impacted their language to change? Can script also impact a language? Even till today no linguists has written a single word on this subject, All linguists have been of the belief that script is inanimate, but you will be surprised to know that even the script reacts and during this process the human groups of distant places, lack of communication gradually change the sound of words in the script. Even today in Southern Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Orissa, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra etc. ‘Jy’ ¼K½ (as in ‘gen’) is pronounced as ‘Gy’ (as in ‘go’). While in the Sanskrit language of North India ‘gya’ is pronounced as ‘Jya’. As a result of territory extension syllables of the script begin to behave independently and in society also, incorrect pronunciation of the language (dialect) becomes permanent and ultimately begins to appear as correct. Except script other factors like geography and atmosphere influence the most in changing the language. The sounds also change due to hot and cold climates.

The Silent Letter - A foolish rule:

“Sing a song – which is not audible or shout so loudly that there is no sound.” You will be surprised to hear such contradictory sentences. Both are foolish sentences, singing a song and not being heard is a mad thinking. Those who speak such things will have to be declared mad. Similar theories have been created and remain in grammar of the European languages but the linguists, instead of making mockery of such theories appear to respect them. No body has till today spoken about such absurd theories in the European languages. Letters of a language spoken in a script are written systematically so that by pronouncing those letters the thoughts of the writes can be read and understood, it means letters are written to be read and if those letters could not be read, or some letters could not be even pronounced, what is the propriety of writing them ? When they are not to be pronounced, what need is there of writing? But a particular word ‘silent’ has become highly ‘respectable’ in the grammar of English (European) language. What a strange word ‘silent’! The sound is there but silent, “the song is there but no sound; shouting is there but without noise”, and this lopsided, absurd and incorrect theory of the English (European) grammar is acceptable to everyone “It is certainly a great miracle of European Language grammar, isn’t it”?

No Western Scholar has been able to explain these uncivilized theories till today. Such silent letters are ‘G’ and ‘K’ before ‘N’; ‘P’ before ‘S’ and ‘T’; ‘L’ before ‘M’; ‘W’ before ‘R’. Why are these letters not pronounced? The Western linguists have neither been able to find reasons nor have given any explanation. I would like to ask western linguists, it is your language and you have left some letters unpronounced. These grammatical rules of your language have been framed by yourselves, who else will explain the reasons of these rules? Don’t you know about your language or do you borrow a language for your use? Why did you adopt such a strange language of others? Was the language of the community you speak given to you on loan in garb of business? Were you without a language before that? The whole world demands an explanation from you today. Do you have an answer? ……… and you have no answer, definitely not”. In cause of time you selected a half-baked commercial script of Alpha-beta, it was like a one eyed man. With the passage of time you have included so many errors, omissions and commissions in that script that today your script has become blind as ‘Dhritrashtra’ (The blind wicked character of the greatest Indian epic ‘Mahabharata’).

No rule in respect of silent letters could be developed in grammar of Western languages. The silent letters are not a development but destruction for language and it is a chaotic error with no explanation regarding these silent letters. Nor will they find past time errors. To amend these errors the western society has only one solution – the co-operation of their own mother language Sanskrit. ‘Sanskrit’ has even today kept their original language intact. Why? The mother never forgets her children. Similarly they have no other option but to return to Sanskrit and to know the origin of their script and language.

The Sanskrit language is competent enough to analyze all Worlds’ languages. Sanskrit is the mother language of all worlds’ languages and as such, it can alone reform any distorted language (like a child) of world like a mother. The defect of “silent letter” was created in the European languages because of the geographical conditions, changes in the climate, the incompleteness of the script and the ignorance oriented tendency of the simplification of words. The British, apart from speaking the initial letters of some words of their language have also stopped to write them. For example ‘Gnum-bher’ = Number (numero, to count), ‘Gnut’ = nut (hard lumps, seed) ‘Agun’ = gun (Fire). Those faulty changes have gone out of world sight. The University of Oxford is the highest institution of English language. Now that premier institution also finds it hapless and helpless in explaining these words and is totally ignorant about it. It can also deny those errors in order to hide its ignorance. The scholars of Oxford University have no knowledge of etymology, nor are they competent to explain their mother tongue. Now you would like to know that when the Westerners have stopped even writing many of the silent letters, why they have retained many such letters in their script. There is a compulsion for that also. If they eliminate silent letters still retained, their language will further become a laughing stock. If they remove the unpronounced letter ‘K’ from ‘Know’ it will become ‘now’. Just look at the paradox, by reducing one letter of the script increase of one sound in the pronunciation occurs. What a spectacular language is English ! Similarly, if ‘W’ is removed from ‘Write’ it becomes ‘Rite’ (Ritual). After writing Rite it becomes more difficult to understand whether this word is for writing or ritual. The word ‘know’ is other version of the Greek Word ‘Gno’ and this ‘Gno’ is original pronunciation of Sanskrit Word ‘Gyan’ Written in the Greek language. Similarly the word ‘Write’ is original script pronunciation of Sanskrit Word (Writi, Vriti) which means round, twisted, sketching. ‘Writi’ is the synonym of ‘Writing’. How will the above mentioned errors be systematized? Will the western scholars explain it? Look at etymological explanation of word ‘write’:–

write : Old English - writan “to score, outline, draw the figure of,” later “to set down in writing” (class I strong verb; past tense wrat, Past participle - written), from Proto-Germanic - *writanan “tear, scratch” (L. confer - Old Frisian - writa “to write,” Old Saxon - writan “to tear, scratch, write,” Old Norse - rita “write, scratch, outline,” Old High German - rizan “to write, scratch, tear,” Gerund - reißen “to tear, pull, tug, sketch, draw, design”), outside connections doubtful. Words for “write” in most Indo-European - languages originally mean “carve, scratch, cut” (L. confer - Classical Latin - scribere, Greek - grapho, Sanskrit - rikh-); a few originally meant “paint”. (—Online Etymology Dictionary  –  Douglas Harper)

And it is here that the Western Scholars make a laughing stock of themselves. In Sanskrit there is the word ‘Likh’ for writing and not ‘Rikh’, but the Western Scholars in order to create the co-relation of their incorrect words are bent upon corrupting even the Sanskrit language. These people want to prove the word ‘write’ for ‘Likh’. Originally the word ‘write’ is ‘Writ’ or ‘Vrit’ of Sanskrit which means to bend, to make a circle, to make something around, sketching etc. The noun ‘Vrit’ (Writ) was made a verb in the form of ‘write’. (All the scripts of the World are circular). Similarly the English Word ‘Wry’ which means bended is derived from ‘Wri’ or ‘Vre’ of Sanskrit which means the same, but they are pronouncing ‘Wry’ instead of ‘Wri’ ¼o`½. The ancestors of Western Scholars had written word ‘Vri’, ‘Wri’ correctly. However, their descendants stopped pronouncing an alphabet ‘w’ showing total disrespect and disregard for script and language. If ‘w’ were to remain silent, why had the ancestors written it. The primitive western scholars who had created the script were learned descendants of ideal Indians. Their present descendants are playing with the language. The conception of Western people that Aryans had migrated from Central Asia and world from Africa is totally childish and unscientific. This is when their original language is ‘Sanskrit’. What relation has Central Asia and Africa with Sanskrit, but keeping aside the linguistic facts they are clinging to assumptions. By developing the weapons of destruction, they are not killing mankind only but the primitive original language and knowledge of their ancestors also.

Disappearance of the Vowel ‘E’:

The European scripts since a long time interval have deprived the language (dialect) of Europeans from Vowels ‘E’ and ‘I’. In ancient Latin and European languages created from it ‘C’ was used for ‘K’ and ‘G’ (as in ‘go’). If we add the vowels ‘E’ or ‘I’ after ‘C’ then the letter ‘C’ in spite of ‘Ki’ begins to produce the sound ‘Si’. Similarly if we add ‘E’ after ‘G’, it leaves the sound of ‘Gi’ (as in get) and changes in the sound of ‘J’ or ‘Je’ or ‘Ji’. There is the only exception of the Word ‘Get’, The Word ‘Get’ (‘G’ as in ‘Gen’) is a changed form of the Sanskrit Word ‘Jit-Jitna, (obtain, gain, to get)’. The preliminary European cryptologists would have pronounced it ‘Jit’. But it seems to hide their error and with a spirit of vengeance the Europeans are hatching some conspiracy. When on adding ‘E’ after ‘G’ the pronunciation of all words becomes ‘J’ then why a rule was made to pronounce ‘Get’ (‘G’ as in ‘go’) which was originally ‘Jit’. Since years ago the Europeans have vanished the pronunciation of ‘Ki’ and ‘gi’ (as in ‘go’) from their language, while except ‘K’ and ‘G’ (as in ‘go’) the sound of the Vowel ‘E’ remained associated with all other consonants. ‘Ki’ and ‘Gi’ were deprived of the sound of the Vowel ‘E’. Why was a step-motherly treatment meted to these two letters? Latin has no letter for the pronunciation of ‘Ki’. The Latin speaking people used ‘K’ for just one word Kal Indae and this very correct word was established in other European languages as ‘Kal Inder’ (Calendar). At present the word ‘calendar’ is used for the circulation of a year made on a piece of paper.

There is no definite rule present in European languages regarding these changes of ‘Ki’ and ‘Gi’ (as in ‘go’). Because of uncertain rules all the languages of Europe have become devoid of principles and meaning, as for as grammar is concerned. Even then it is surprising that decorated with the miraculous rules their languages are co-operative in the matter of feelings getting understood. The reality is that as to why and when the European languages were tied by these contrary rules of grammar? The answer to this is neither with them and nor somebody else has the capacity. This is because not rules (grammar), but a behavior full of madness and arbitrariness is reflected in these languages. On basis of which rule the people of Latin pronounce the Word ‘Kaiser’ (Caesar as ‘Seizer’)? What is the meaning of the word Caesar? They don’t know though in Germany this word is correctly pronounced as Kaiser (The King).

European Languages—Devoid of Grammar rules:

What odd circumstances can be created by a small piece of cloth, if we try to cover our body by it. If we cover our head, the feet are left out and if we try to cover our feet, hands are bare. On covering hands, the back is exposed. The origin of European scripts took place with disregard to principles of the grammar. If proper rules are to be determined, now the number of those will be numberless, to read, understand and remember they will become impossible. The grammar rules will become bigger than the dictionary. At present the condition of European languages grammar is like that small piece of cloth. There will definitely be minimum need of one rule for one word like the Sanskrit Word ‘ahem’, ‘aam’, ‘I am’ / ‘I am’ (it is me). The same word became ‘I am’ in European languages. The European scholars cannot explain etymology of this word even partially. To avoid this ignorance they had to codify this single word that only ‘am’ verb will be used with I and not ‘is’ or ‘are’. Contrary to this, there is no such binding rule in Sanskrit because ‘Ahem’ are not two words, but only one. Before the year 1752 A.D. in European languages of Latin and English for ‘J’ and ‘I’ there was only one letter in the script ‘I’. In 1752 symbol ‘J’ was created and was granted a separate sound. But without making any amendment of the ancient times joint script error and without separating ‘J’ and ‘I’ the ‘J’ was stabilized for pronunciation as ‘I’. All ancient words began to be pronounced with ‘I’ such as ‘igni’, the correct pronunciation being ‘Jagni’ and after 1752 the correct pronunciation of word ‘Jagni’ (Sparking light in Sanskrit) began to be used in incorrect pronunciation of ‘Igni’ which is still going on. Thus the European languages are going further to their original sound and distorted. In such a way, European languages went on moving away from their original sounds, getting distorted.

The change of the sound ‘V’ in ‘oo’ and ‘U’:

One thousand seven hundred years ago the letter ‘U’ was used for the sound ‘V’ in Latin ‘Una’ from ‘U’ = Vna, Van (one only), “Unus” ‘Vanes’ (One), ‘Unity’ = ‘Vnity’, ‘Universe’ = ‘Vnivarsh’ = (One Universal Year), ‘Union’ = ‘Vnion’ = (A group), correct words were created based on Sanskrit language. Later on the letter ‘U’ (V) in the script was changed for ‘Oo’ and ‘U’ (why? Western Scholars have no answer). Giving the sound of ‘V’ the ‘U’ now began to produce the sound of ‘Oo’ and ‘U’ and unity which was originally ‘Vniti’, now became ‘Unity’. The script changed the language. No theory or Rule of the language has been produced till today as to on what basis one symbol changed the sound of the language. Contrary to this in ‘Unus, Vnas’ the sound of ‘Van’ was stabilized and it changed the symbol of script. The sound of the word ‘Van’ remained stable, but why in the place of the script symbol ‘U’ (V) the symbol ‘O’ was used for the pronunciation of the sound ‘V’, all the linguistic scholars including the Oxford university are mum.

The origin of defective ‘Qu’ (Kv):

Even till today the Western and Indian linguistic scholars have failed in explaining the sound ‘QU’ in the Indo-European language. The words in which ‘ch’ letter or sound is included in Sanskrit their counterparts in the – European languages have used the sound ‘Qu’ (kw) in the place of ‘ch’. Was due to unknown reasons ‘ch’ changed into the sound of ‘Qu’ (Kw) while they left India? According to western scholars sound ‘ch’ changes into ‘ch’ in the east of central Asia and towards west of it becomes ‘Qu’ (Kw). Was this a miracle which happened with only the language (sound) of Aryans, leaving the false original place?

(1)        At the time of the origin of Latin ‘Qu’ was used for a sound of ‘ch’. During the fourth century at entry of Christianity Semitic language ‘Hebrew’ also blended with the European languages. The ‘Hebrew’ language started to distort the European languages all the more. Although Hebrew and all the European languages were born from the Alpha-beta scripts, even then every country established the Alpha-beta symbols for sounds according to their convenience. The word ‘Quaf’ (Kwaf) of Hebrew language was included at creation time of the Latin Bible. No new symbol for the word ‘Quaf’ was found and the earlier one used ‘Qu’ for ‘ch’ was changed in ‘Qu’ sound. ‘Qu’ was used for both sounds ‘ch’ as well as ‘Qu’ (kw) in the beginning. Later on, the sound of ‘ch’ from ‘Qu’ was forgotten as ‘G’ (as in go) from letter ‘C’. In this way, an earlier ‘ch’ was pronounced ‘Qu’ (kw) in the years ahead but no change occurred in meaning even after the change in sound.

(2)        The biggest surprise which reveals the truth is that in the European country of Albania the letter ‘Q’ is pronouncing the sound ‘ch’ even today. Apart from this, even in the Chinese language ‘Mandarin’ the Latin letter ‘Q’ is used for ‘ch’ sound. That means the ‘Qu’ of European languages is pronounced by the Chinese as ‘ch’ and not ‘Qu’. (“Qin” is pronounced as ‘chin-china’).

(3)        The Italian majority of ‘Etruscan’ even today, use the ‘Q’ as ‘ch’ parallel to Sanskrit ‘ch’ (which means to add, total, and, plus).

(4)        ‘H’ of the present European language was initially used for the sound ‘Hai’ (H, He). After transfer of ‘ch’ to ‘Qu’ the same ‘H’ got the addition of the sound ‘ch’ and it was converted into ‘Haich-aich’ which after the addition of letter ‘C’ had been made only for the sound ‘ch’. Why does the letter ‘H’ produce the sound ‘aich’ or ‘haich’ and leaves the sound ‘ch’ at last? When added to other consonants, it does not produce the sound ‘ch’ (for example ‘Kh’ ¼[k½, ‘Ph’ ¼Q½, ‘Th’ ¼Fk½, as in ‘Theo’ ¼n½ as in ‘The’). It gives its original sound ‘H’ ¼g½ when used alone.

The letter ‘Qu’ of European languages is changed form of a sound ‘ch’ in Sanskrit language. Whether the letter ‘Qu’ (joint letter) is used in the beginning, the end or middle of a word it is the changed form of the Sanskrit word ‘ch’. (‘Ch’ group ‘ch’ ¼p½, ‘chh’ ¼N½), For example:-

Aqua, soft water, ‘Achh’, pure, soft (Later on in Europe, it became conventional use of word ‘Aqua’ for ‘Pure & Soft Water’)

Aquatieus, rice, paddy, ‘Achhat’, paddy, rice

Quadra, square, ‘Chhad’, chader, chhpper, chht (roof or cover), (They were named square due to their same size of four sides)

Quaestio, question, to ask, ‘Chest’, to ask, make effort

Quaff, to eat greedily, glutton, ‘Chap, Chaper’, tapping soundly

quake, shake, shiver etc. ‘Chaki’, shiver, shudder

quaint, strange ‘Chnt’ capable, peculiar

Qualitas, behavior, moral values, ‘Chalit’, eligible, peculiar

quail, deviated ‘Chll’, distressed, deviate, upset

Quando, quandary, enrage, ‘Chnd’, In rage, rest-less

Quantus, quantity, area, to analyze, ‘Chint’, think upon, analyze

Quartum, quarter, (Kwarter), fourth Part, hut, abode, ‘Chatur’ (fourth part), ‘Chhatvr’, roof, temporary abode, hut, ceiling etc.

Quasso, quash, to finish, abolish, ‘Chash’, to kill

Que, and line ‘Ch’ = and, join, together (line) pronounced ‘Ch’, related ancient Latin word ‘Que’

Querella, quarrel, to fight ‘Cher + up’, going against, tyrannical act

Quiesco, quiet, peaceful, ‘Chitt’, peaceful delighted

quilt, cover to be safe from cold, ‘Chelm’, cover

Quinque, five, ‘Chaanch’, five, a hand with five fingures

quit, to leave, depart, ‘Cht’, departed, separated, ‘Chuit’, to separate, to break

quixote, extravagant, ‘Che - xot’, to see

quixotic, imagination, strange, ‘Chexos’, strange

Quod, question, to ask question, ‘Choudh’, ask question

Square, four side same, ‘Chauras’, four side same (‘S’ for same is used first in Latin S + quare. Though in Sanskrit (Hindi) ‘S’ is used after word ‘Chaura + s’)

(Abc - Latin, abc - english, abc - ‘Sanskrit’)

Is it a coincidence that all the words with ‘Qu’ are producing the same meaning as the Sanskrit letter ‘ch’ provides? The biggest coincidence is that ‘chaturth’ (fourth part, fourth) and ‘chhatvar’ (hidden place, roof, a place with roof) the two almost similar Sanskrit words have a single word ‘Quarter’ in Latin that means fourth, barrack, covered, ceiling, temporary abode. This happened due to 24 letters of an incomplete script. This is not a coincidence but this defect is there in all the half-baked, tottering and faulty Alpha-beta languages which are originally the spoilt issue of Sanskrit. An explanation on theoretical standards is not possible for such faulty, unprincipled languages which are devoid of any rule. In an Indian language by a pure process Alfa is made from A. Contrary to this in European and Semitic languages they make ‘A’ from Alpha.

 

‘Sapt Sindhu’ & ‘Hind’

            The relation of word “Hindu” is often believed to be with a “Sanskrit” word “Sindhu”. According to western and Indian historians “Sindhu” does not belong to “Sanskrit” but to “Dravid” or to some other previous languages. From there this word came to “Sanskrit” because river “sindh” was called “sindhu” and on that very basis an area around river came to be called “sindhu”. After reaching Iran this word became “Hindu” and then “Hind” which meant the “Sindh Pradesh”. Later on this word “Hind” began to connote whole of

India. After an addition of Iranian suffix of “ik” it became “Hindik” which meant “Hind ka” ? The Greek word “Indica” or “India” are developed terms of the same very word “Hindik”. The similar guesses were made by short sighted linguists and historians – away from truth.

            The word ‘Hind’ originated from a word ‘Ind’, ‘Indra’ described repeatedly in the Vedas is its distorted form. The name ‘Indica’ given by Greek Aryans became Indae in Latin language and later on ‘India’ in English language of Britain. Because of use of ‘h’ in lieu of ‘e’ in Iranian word Indica of Greek Aryans became ‘Hindka’. Later on before an invasion by Britain ‘Hindka’, ‘Hindi’, ‘Hindustan’ etc. were widely used. The word ‘Sapt Sindhu’ (Seven Rivers) described in the ‘Vedas’ has no relation with history. Its use is related with veins of human body. Even then majority of Indian historians kept on believing sapt sindhu to be the origin place of Aryans. Aryan migrates have no memory of “Sindh” river. They remembered only river “Ganges” which is even today considered to be the purest and great river of India. The concept of Sapt Sindhu being the place of origin is wrong and based on false imagination.

            Originally, word ‘Hind’ is a distorted form of Vedic Sanskrit word ‘Ind’. But what is this ‘Indr’ or ‘Ind’? The word ‘Indr’ has been used hundreds of times in Indian Vedas. It has been depicted in forms of universe power of the sun, air, clouds, light and the god. The same word ‘Indr’ was personified in India and in whole of Europe. India was named ‘Bharatvarsh’, about seven thousand years ago. The word ‘Bharat’ is also synonym of word ‘Indr’ (Bha + rat; Bha = Bhanu, sunshine, fire, light + rat = attached, continuous = that is a source of continuous light, means Sun or Indr). The current etymology ‘Bharat called due to Bhrat (King) is false & baseless. Indian culture used to be known as a name of ‘Inde’ or ‘Indr’ in ancient time. (Ind = In + d, In = Sun, D = born of, Son of Sun, Surya Vanshi). Modern India the ancient name of which was ‘Ind’ even today, the same Sanskrit word ‘In’, the sun, is found in cultures of whole Africa, Europe, Asia and Australian continents for sake of sun worshipping (originated from the Indian Vedas) with which no scholar is acquainted today. The word ‘Sindhu’ has no relevance with that. The same very word ‘Indu’ is used by the Italians to represent them (Because of being of Indian origin).

            Till today inhabitants of Europe and Rome call themselves ‘Indigen’ which means the ‘son of motherland’. If they are asked about meaning of the word ‘Indi’ or ‘Indu’, they are unable to answer.

            Indagatio, Indago (means tracking out investigation) Inde, Indidem (the place of origin), Indigena (Native, Indigenous). In Greek and Latin languages the words ‘Indicus’, Indae, Indu, Inder have been used for themselves and Indica, India Inder have been used for India by Europeans, Why ? Here is an example :-

            Indigena, ae (Indu+gen) = sprung from the land, native (from birth, nationality, being of the country), indigenous (local, national, of the land), Miles (who comes to meet, the soldier), L. Fauni [Fauna] Fna is (FA), one of the names of Shiva mythical king of Latin (worshipped as the Italian pan) (A king of the Latin fable who was worshipped in Italy as the village god, was considered to be the defender of the shephards). Nymphaeque (The god of water and the mountains), V. Apri (Basking in the Sun), O-As subst, m, a native, son of the soil, Maiores (Highness), Eorum (for this) L. Hoc (this place), Indigenae (Indigen), Vivebant (Vibhvant) = Power, energy, valour, age, full of aura, long life, More aborigines, lu.

(-An Elementary Latin Dictionary by Charlton T. Lewis, Page 404)

            The primitive ancestors of the Europeans who had left (India) Ind Desh to settle on unknown places used to remember India with the name of Ind Desh, but after origin of script the Romans began to call India ‘Indicus’, Indae, the Greek called it Indica, the Germans Inder and people of England called it India. Owing to the script and wrong pronunciation it became ‘Hind’ in Iran (Paras). In spite of ‘Apbhransha’ (corrupt) word ‘Hind’ the British called ‘Sindh’ river as ‘Indus’.

(Abc - Latin, abc - english, abc - sanskrit)

  

 

The False Voyage of the Primitive Man

                Refer to the programmed ‘The journey of man’ broadcast by the National Geographical Channel and ‘The Real Eve’ in the Biggest show broadcast by the Discovery Channel’. In this Biggest show Mr. Spencer Wells, writer of the Book “The Journey of Man: A Genetic Odyssey” is analyzing DNA samples from around the world. Similarly as a rotten fish pollutes the whole pond the theory of evolution has polluted reasoning and brain to the extent of madness. Finding some chimpanzees in Africa suddenly, these lunatics got the right to grow the man by chimpanzees. Now, because man is born from chimpanzees and those monkeys found in Africa, the sons of primitive monkey, the helpless man also will have to live in Africa and from there it will have to populate the planet.

            Mr. Spencer Wells has drawn a scientific conclusion that from central Africa the primitive man reached Australia in a very short time through south India (on the basis of DNA test of Madurai). A voyage of twelve thousand kilometers was not possible by sea. Hence they followed the path around the sea and reached Australia via Yemen to Arab peninsula, India and Indonesia. Because of taking shelter under the DNA analysis and suffering from the disease of evolution theory Mr. Spencer could not conduct the right research. He has not been able to find any scientific solution of how our ancestors could reach Australia in such a short time. Though he has reduced Somalia sea level by forty six meters (153 feet) and may be between Indonesia and Australia by fifty meters (166 feet). Can the level of water ‘sea’ be high or low by thirteen feet (166 - 153 = 13)? While at that time no ice age occurred.

            By nature the man is inhabitant of land, he is not an amphibian (aquatic). When the biologists bring the ancient race ‘(San) Bushman’ from Central Africa and put it on the sea coast of Somalia, there was the vast land of Ethiopia and Egypt. Instead of going to that broad land why did they reach Yemen (the Arab sub continent), crossing such a vast deep sea? Why were those scientists in such a hurry to make them cross sea? Had these scientists taught those primitive people, their women and children, the art of swimming? Or otherwise these ancient people blindly jumped into sea and crossed it in the name of these scientists? Who, the fool would like to cross sea with small children without safe guards? Since ancient time human beings could not swim without proper training. It is strange enough as to how these initial facts were forgotten by these scientists?

            Any group of human race or tribe which gets secluded because of geographical reasons or self made customs and rituals, then more purity is sustained in their D.N.A. in comparison to others. Their adjustment or indulgence with other human groups does not remain intact and so their D.N.A. remains stable for a long time. Especially in India there were favorable geographical conditions for an increase in the mixing of D.N.A. and they are still there, therefore there is no secluded human group left here. But from this it can’t be proved that the secluded tribes are the oldest ones. This is an unprincipled and non-scientific decision, but the biologists made whole world understand it by showing the ghost of D.N.A. And the world! ……..understood it! ………accepted it! ………..what a pity! If every thing had to take place in the nature according to the theory of Darwin and these biologists, Darwin would have become the ‘Messiah (Prophet)’ and these scientists’ angels. Does biology in Europe and America teach how a falsehood can be turned into truth?

            Declaring primitive people of (San) ‘Bushman’ tribe of Central Africa (The untrue origin place of man) as primitive ancestors of the oldest ancient mankind they take them to ‘Kyrgyzstan’ of Central Asia. ‘Navajo Indians’ of Kyrgyzstan were also called by them the ancient true humans (The direct descendants of Bushman) – Navajyo (Sanskrit – Navajyo = Nava = New, Jyo = to follow the religion, Indians professing new religion), and inhabitants of ‘Tundra’ region in north the ‘Chikshu’ also consider them to be the oldest descendants of Navajyo, (Chikshu = in Sanskrit‘Chikshu’ = unstable, meaning, wavering) and Yarang (Sanskrit – ‘Yarang’ = ‘Ya + Rang’; moving, temporary, unstable, meeting–hall, living house, tent etc. The same meaning is there in the ‘Chikshu’ language). The ‘Chikshus’ went to America via ‘Alaska’ and caused the rehabilitation of America. Because of these Bushman, ‘Navajo’ and ‘Chikshu’ the whole world is a single dynasty. All inhabitants of the world constitute the same dynasty. But the way in which the western biologists are producing the false argument about the place and the original ancestors, cannot be taken as authentic.

            In the programmed ‘Tamed India’ of Discovery Channel under the caption “Desert Wolves of India” a discovery the western scientists have made it amply clear that place or origin of all wolves of world is the Indian Himalayas and the barren land of ‘Rajasthan’ and ‘Gujarat’ region. Only from these places they spread in throughout the world. Similarly the origin place of cow is also northern India and from there it reached the whole world.

            Now, the question arises whether the wolves and cows spread in the world by themselves or they traveled with human beings. Both these animals live in company of man and grow in his neighborhood. So this fact is not acceptable that animals living with man would spread to the world without him. The western scholars have proved on the basis of science that the origin place of wolves and cows is only India, why, and then are they holding Africa as the origin place of human race? Do these two contradictory theories not put a question mark on their intelligence? Their analysis regarding Africa proves it that they have not a single proof regarding the origin of man. They are only beating about the bush in the matter of fixing Africa. They have no proof regarding their theory about the origin of man being Africa.

The Origin Place of Man - Why Africa?

            Why all the scientists are ganging up to prove that only Africa is origin place of mankind? As an answer they have only one solution the DNA analysis. From DNA analysis the relation can be decided between different groups of man. It can tell the relation of man to man but what are these people trying to prove from the DNA analysis? They are trying to tell that DNA can tell about the birth place of a man. The chromosomes ‘Gun-Sutras’ (Virtue-Factor) of man has nothing to do with place. The DNA analyses only the physical structure of a man and not the place situated on the surface of the earth. It is astonishing that in the whole world not a single scholar is prepared to ask the DNA analyst as to what relation DNA has with the place. Why are you clinging to Africa like fools? What is proof and basis of modern man’s place of origin being Africa? Today, the western scientists and biologists, claiming that the origin place of man is Africa; they are getting encircled in a web created by themselves. The day will come when they will have to declare that the origin place of man is India. Biology has its limit in concern with human genetic relation. But the biologists are binding fictitious human relation with place beyond the limit of science. Only by recognizing ancient human skeletons in Africa it can’t be proved that ancient skeletons are not found anywhere else on the earth. Have these biologists ransacked whole of the earth?

            Their ignorant effort reminds of a story. The school teacher asked a student, “A train is running at a speed of 100 km/h. Then tell the age of my brother” An innocent student replied, “forty years”. The teacher said, “Absolutely correct, But tell me with which method did you find this answer?” Fearlessly the student said, “My elder brother is twenty years old and is half mad”. Are the biologists also not searching answers against the similar questions” What is the relation between the speed of a train and a man’s age? What has DNA (The chromosomes of human) analysis to do with South Africa as a place? South Africa is a part of land not mankind. Do they have a reasonable reply to this?

            The origin place of man is definitely India and from here the Aborigines had reached Australia in the east and Bushman (Imaginary name) Central Africa in the West in very short intervals. This is the truth of biologist’s problem (Reaching Australia from Africa in a short time). The most astonishing aspect is - the language of primitive people at the time of leaving Africa. On this topic the scientists and scholars are mysteriously silent, they never talk about the language, till today not a single scientist, historian, and linguist has found which language man had while leaving Africa. Were these primitive people speaking or dumb? Apart from Sanskrit all the people of world are undeveloped in respect of language. They have no etymological knowledge of their own language. What would they tell about the language of primitive man?

            The language of those human groups was Sanskrit and they had spread in the world from India, not from Africa. This is not an assumption but an authentic challenge for the world.

            Leave Africa and trace your roots in India which are only in India (Ind). India is the ultimate sacred destination of human origin. For this we are grateful to the West that they introduced us to the word ‘Indu’, ‘Ind’ safely stored in their memory.

  

 

The Vedas (Rig and Atharva)

The authenticity of the Vedas is present in the western countries since thousands of years. The unfortunate fact is that they have forgotten the Vedas. The Vedas contain the face of nature, human conduct and behavior, the system of social life and mainly the management of the government. They especially contain directions to ruling class based on the activities of five supreme elements. Now, the Europeans don’t know, even the meaning of the word ‘Reg’ or ‘Rig’, nor do they know why they are using this word? The word ‘Rig’ is being used for the same meaning in India as well as in Europe that is ‘Administration’. As western scholars have always been declaring Central Asia as original place of Aryans, then original place of word ‘Rig’ and ‘Rig-Veda’ will have to be accepted as some barren place in the Central Asia. Is Rig-Veda not the legacy of India? Why did all those Aryan Scholars, who had authority on Vedas, come from Central Asia and settled in India? Were the Vedas created in Central Asia? Had the Indian Aryans brought the complete knowledge of the Vedas? Did the European Aryans go to Europe with a single word ‘Rig’, of which they do not even know an etymological explanation?

Does this fact not point to India as the original place of the Aryans? Was Rig-Veda written in the desert of Central Asia? Then why were the groups of Aryans who went to Europe deprived of the Rig-Veda knowledge? And if the knowledge of Rig-Veda had gone from India, on what basis Central Asia was being declared as the original place of Aryans? The most surprising fact is that not even a single contemporary or modern historian has been able to produce any solid evidence to prove the concept of Central Asia being “original place of Aryans”. They have been only insulting themselves and their ancestors by spreading such canards regarding the original place of their ancestors. Look at some ancient proofs regarding Rig-Veda and Atharva Veda of India in western countries:-

Rego [REG], conduct guide, Rig, Veda

Regalis, regal, royal

Regaliter, royally

Regens, ruler, governor

Regia, royal palace, court

Regie, royally

Regifice, royally

Regificus, royal

Regimen, means of guidance, director

Regina, Queen

Regio [REG], rigor, a direction

Regionatim, district

Regius, king

Regnator, Ruler

Regnatrix, imperial

Regno, to have royal power

Regnum, kingly government

Regredior, Regressus, return to right

Regula, Regulus, ruler

Rego (Rigya) (REG), to keep straight, righteous, rightful, rightly, rigid, rigidity, rigor (full control), rigorous (fixed, purified, determined), rigsdag (royal court of Danish), guide, direct, control

The following words of the English language are related to analysis described in Rig-Veda.

regain – recover, reach again

regal – royal, kingly

regalia – royal rights, royal symbol

regale – to decorate, capable, occasions, cheerfulness, rest, to please

regard – to respect, to show, reverence

regardful – within limits, not neglectful

retardants – accordingly, observant

regency – royal ambassador (representative)

regent – emperor (temporary)

regicide – king killing

regime – administration

regimen – administration, an orderly government

regiment – royal army (state)

region – trace of a country, a separate specific part

registrar – official list

regnal – related to reign

regnant – head commander

regorge – to raise again

regress – change, going back

regret – repent, to grieve at

regular – according to rule, systematic

regulation – prescribed rule

regulate – to manage, to adjust

regulus – meteor

regurgitate – cast up again

Rite, rite, religious work, abandoned to religion

right (Rigt), true, fact, fair, Right, eligible

For religion the Westerners coined a very beautiful word ‘religion’, Re + Lai + Gen; Re = Lai - Lay = establish + extreme devotion + the immersion of the mind + Jan - Gen; to establish the man in devotion or the concentration of mind = Religion.

Attribuo, attribute (religion, title, adjective, quality), attribution (the conferring of authority), attributive (the symbol of virtues, the specialized) = Atherv, Veda.

On basis of Roman dictionary while Roman (Aryans) were leaving India only two Vedas, the first Rig and the other Atharva had been composed. On the basis of the above mentioned words, the validity of only two Vedas is established.

(Abc - Latin, abc - English, abc - ‘Sanskrit’)

  

Cow (Gow - God)

Ever since primitive time the cow is worshipped as ‘mother cow’ in India and similarly in Europe the cow used to be worshipped as the Supreme God. The solid proofs of facts are present not only in the literature and history of Europe but also in the Bible in plenty. In which condition at present has the revered cow been reduced by the human being. After the adoption of Christianity cow was forgotten and its idols were destroyed. In India Idols of several Gods and Goddesses were established on the basis of the Sanatan Dharma, while the Europeans on the basis of Arya (Vedic religion) kept on worshipping the cow only visually and considered it to be the only God. In Europe, word God is used for Almighty and this word has originated from a Sanskrit Word ‘Gowdev’.

 

First Time in the world

A Presentation of

The revelation of Truth

 

Please wait

For an authentic Research

Which will?

Devastate most of the World’s

Historical and Scientific Presumptions

 

The Death of History

(India – The origin place of Human)

The next episode

 

Was “Jesus” REAL?

 

Very Soon..............!

Mysterious puzzles of New Testaments

1.     Why was Jesus to be born of Virgin Mary?

2.     Why does every Joseph in the Bible indulge in dreams?

3.     Why was John born six months earlier to Jesus?

4.     Why does John not drink grape wine and liquor?

5.     Why has Zachariah, the father of John remained dumb till his son’s birth?

6.     Why does John stand witness, “It is he who is coming after me”?

7.     John does not deserve to unlace Jesus’ shoes, why?

8.     Why do so many kings with the same name “Herod” occur during Jesus’ life?

9.     Who were the three astrologers appearing at the birth of Jesus?

10.   Why does John wear clothes made of camel hair and girdle?

11.   Did John use to eat locusts and forest honey?

12.   Why has Jesus to say repeatedly “Verily, verily, I say to you”?

13.   Why was Jesus born at “Nazareth” and was called “Nazarene”?

14.   Do you know meaning of the place called “Golgotha”?

15.   Why did Jesus always remain around bank of a lake or a river?

16.   Why do the disciples of Jesus leave net instantly and follow him”?

17.   Why is Jesus indifferent about meeting his mother and brothers?

18.   How is Jesus able to feed five thousand people with just five pieces of bread?

19.   How does Jesus satisfy four thousand men with just seven pieces of bread?

20.   Why does Jesus give only divine symbol of “Jonas”?

21.   Why does Jesus predict his death again and again?

22.   Why does Jesus show his changed form after taking John and Peter along with him?

23.   Why did Jesus come to nurse others and not to be nursed himself?

24.   Why are all women around Jesus of same name “Mary”?

25.   Why are so many people named “Simon” associated with Jesus?

26.   Do you know the meaning of “Galilee”?

27.   Why does no one else, but “Judas” get Jesus caught?

28.   Who is the thirty eight year old bed ridden patient?

29.   When everybody knew Jesus, why does Judas get him identified?

30.   Why does “Simon Peter”, refuse to recognize Jesus?

31.   Why does Judas commit suicide so soon?

32.   Who was Mary Magdalene?

33.   What were the reasons behind putting a crown of thorns on Jesus?

34.   Red and Purple colored clothes are first put on Jesus and then taken off, why?

35.   Why was there darkness all around when Jesus breathes his last?

36.   Why does the shrine’s curtain get torn in the middle at death of Jesus?

37.   Why did Jesus have to come again alive three days after his death?

38.   Why does “Joseph” (not his father) come to carry away the dead body of Jesus?

39.   How old was Jesus when he was crucified?

40.   Jesus calls himself sometimes “Son of God” and sometimes “Son of Man”, why?

41.   Was Jesus’ birth really predicted by sooth sayers?

42.   Was Jesus actually crucified on the same cross as is shown in the picture (†)?

43.   Why is the place of Jesus’ burial different in various Gospels?

44.   Do you know the meaning of “Nag Hammadi”?

45.   Why was Jesus visible only to “Mary Magdalene” after his rebirth?

46.   Why did the eleven disciples have to go to Galilee in order to have a view of Jesus after his revival?

47.   Why did Jesus ride on ass’s colt every time he used to go to Jerusalem?

48.   Why will Baptism be given with water by John and with fire by Jesus?

49.   Why does Jesus say, “The bridegroom will be separated from them, they will fast during those days”?

50.   Why does Jesus want his disciples to drink his blood from a grail?

51.   Why does Jesus feel frightened and shed big drops of perspiration while praying?

52.   Why was scent poured on Jesus’ head by Mary?

53.   What is to be meant by the statement, “I am the bread of life”?

54.   “And the bread I shall give to world is my flesh”, is the food being eaten by world, the flesh of Jesus?

55.   “The one, who eats my flesh and drinks my blood, remains stable in me and me in him”, what statement is it?

56.   “The one who eats me, will remain alive owing to me, otherwise?”

57.   Why does Jesus wash the feet of his disciples?

58.   Why did Jesus show the holes made in his hands by the nails only when Thomas arrived?

59.   What is the correct meaning of “Gabbatha”?

60.   What is truly birthday of Jesus, 6th January or 25th December?

61.   Is Jesus really a historical character?

62.   What is the secret of one hundred and fifty three fishes?

63.   Was Jesus really born in Bethlehem?

64.   Can a woman conceive without a man?

65.   Was Jesus taken to Egypt?

66.   In Bible Bethlehem, Bethesda, Bethsaida (5:2 Johanna) is repeated again and again. What is the “Beth” or “Bath” after all?

67.   Why that field of the potter is called the “field of blood” even till today?

68.   Why are so many characters named Mary, Joseph, Simon (John), Jacob repeated in Bible?

69.   Why are only twelve buckets of food left after feeding all the people? What is the meaning of “Twelve buckets full of bread”?

70.   Did Jesus use to kiss the whole body of Mary Magdalene as stated in “Gospel of Philip” found in Nag Hammadi of Egypt?

71.   Do you know the meaning of the story of Jesus’ revival?

72.   Who was “Paul” the propagator of Christianity?

73.   What is the mystery behind Jesus reviving the dead body of “Lazarus”?

74.   Are the old and new testaments of Bible, only imaginary tales?

75.   Are Jewish, Christianity and Islam religions the re-composition of the Indian Vedas?

76.   Was Jesus the incarnation of King Solomon?

77.   Do you know the meaning of “Messiah” (Christ)?

78.   Every king “Harrods” was the ruler of the one fourth states. What is this one fourth state?

79.   Why does the sinful woman Mary pour scent on the feet of Jesus?

80.   Was Jesus born millions of years ago as is said that he existed before Abraham?

81.   Is Jesus alive even today?

82.   Why did Herod put shining clothes on Jesus’ body?

83.   After crucifying Jesus why did the soldiers distribute his clothes among themselves?

84.   Why was Jesus given vinegar after putting him on the cross?

            Please wait to know the mystery of the questions of Bible complicated for the last two thousand
            years.

 

 

Mysterious puzzles of Old Testaments

1.     Do you know the meaning of “Jehovah” (God) of Jewish religion?

2.     Was Adam really the first man on Earth?

3.     Has the Garden of Eden described in Bible been discovered?

4.     Was Eve the really first woman on Earth?

5.     Why was a serpent kept with Adam and Eve in Eden Garden?

6.     Who was the serpent of Eden Garden? Is that alive even today?

7.     Do you know “Cain” and “Abel”?

8.     Cain killed his real brother in presence of God (Jehovah) and god blessed Cain. Was it a religious deed?

9.     Why did Cain become an absconder on earth?

10.   Would you like to know the country of Cain named “Nod” has been discovered?

11.   Do you want to know the descendants of Cain (Enoch, Erad, Mahaleleel, Methuselah, Lamech, Wife of Lamech - Adah and Zillah, Jabal, Jubal, Tubal-Cain, Naamah)?

12.   Would you like to read the history of Adam’s third son “Seth” and his son “Enos”?

13.   Does the form of a human being resemble Jehovah (God)?

14.   Does any scholar know the meaning of “Canaan” to-day?

15.   What do you know about descendants of Adam and Seth (Enoch, Noah, Mahalaleel, Lamech, Methuselah, Jared)?

16.   Who was Noah, the central character of Deluge legend?

17.   Which is the true birth date of Shem, Ham, Japheth the sons of Noah? (8:15 then the God said to Noah, 16 come out of water with your sons, wife and daughter-in-law, 10:1 - Shem, Ham, Japheth were the sons of Noah) They were born after the deluge. Which story should be trusted?

18.   The event of Deluge (horrible flood) has never happened. Then why is this story found in all civilizations of world?

19.   Did really Noah and his sons Shem, Hams, Japheth exist ever or......?

20.   Do you want to know the history of Nimrod, descendant of Ham’s son Cush? (Origin 10:8 Nimrod, one of Cush descendants, was the first warrior on Earth)?

21.   Why does Noah curse “Canaan” to become a slave without any reason?

22.   Speaking different languages by human-beings, the story “Tower of Babylon”, is to amuse the children?

23.   Is family tree of Sham produced in Bible, true?

24.   Are Abram and Sara historical characters?

25.   Why was the practice of circumcision started? What is the real meaning of circumcision?

26.   Why did Abram go to Egypt?

27.   Was Pharaoh of Egypt imperiled due to Abram’s wife?

28.   Why does Abram take Lot along with him everywhere?

29.   Why does Lot select the irrigated land along river Jordan?

30.   Why is Lot caught and imprisoned?

31.   What is meaning of three hundred eighteen slaves of Abram?

32.   Why does Jehovah (God) spend most of his time in anger and punishing?

33.   Would any father (Lot) like to procreate progeny by sleeping with his daughters? Is this a religious ritual of Jews?

34.   Can a hundred year old couple (Isaac) produce progeny?

35.   Who was red colored “Esau” with hair?

36.   Why was “Joseph” always interpreting the dreams?

37.   Was Moses an historical figure?

38.   Why was the grave of Moses not found in Israel?

39.   Why did Aaron always remain with Moses?

40.   Who were Amalek?

41.   Why was Moses’ wife name Sippora?

42.   Why has Jehovah (God) taken a vow to fight against Amalek for generations?

43.   What is the mystery behind Israelis crossing the Red Sea and army of Pharaoh getting drowned?

44.   Who was “Samuel”?

45.   Do you know “Elly”?

46.   After making “Saul” as king, why does Jehovah snatch his kingdom?

47.   Who was David?

48.   Why did Solomon prove himself to be the last king of Israel?

49.   Do you know Sheba?

50.   From where had Sheba come and where did she go?

51.   What is meant by “The kings of Israel”? Had Soul, David and Solomon ever been the kings of Israel?

52.   Had the queen of Sheba come from the country called Syria or from Southern Arab or Northern Africa? Now the scholars consider Ethiopia or Yemen to be her original place? Is it true?

53.   Why are the characters described in “Torah” called “Nabi”?

54.   Had a temple in reality been built by Solomon?

55.   Why was Solomon born to only Bathsheba?

56.   Could David alone not construct the temple of Jehovah?

57.   No other king except Solomon could construct the temple of Jehovah, why?

58.   Who was Hiram Abi? Why is he mentioned as a widow’s son?

59.   Why did no sounds occur at construction time of the first temple?

60.   Saul rules over Israel only for two years, why?

            Wait to know the jumbled questions of Bible since two thousand years!

 

 

 

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